UPPCS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Science & Technology

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UPPCS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Science & Technology

UPPCS Prelims 2017 Important Questions: The Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission will conduct UPPSC Examination this year and the online application lines are open till 27 March 2017. Most candidates have already started preparing for the preliminary examination and here is our take on UPPCS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Science & Technology.

To facilitate your exam preparation for UPPSC Recruitment, here are some of the most essential questions from science & technology section.

 

UPPCS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Science & Technology

Important Science & Tech Questions of UPPCS

Q.1 which one of the following is not correct about boiling and evaporation?

(a) Boiling point decreases if external pressure is low but evaporation increase if external pressure is low.

(b) Boiling can take place in closed as well as open vessel whereas evaporation takes place only in are open vessel.

(c) Evaporation takes place only from the surface whereas boiling involves formation of bubbles blow the surface.

(d) Evaporation takes place at all temperatures whereas boiling takes place only at one particular temperature.

Ans. (b) 

Explanation: Evaporation takes place in a closed vessel also.

Q.2. The water pollutants mainly responsible for eutrophication are

(a) Polychlorinated biphenyls.

(b) Detergents and fertilizers containing phosphate anion.

(c) Heavy metals present in mining waste.

(d) Cd, Pb and Hg present in industrial waste.

Ans. b

Explanation: Eutrophication involves increase in the concentration of the phosphate ions on the surface of water.

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Q.3. What do we call a network whose elements may be separated by some distance? It usually involves two or more small networks and dedicated high-speed telephone lines.

(a) World Wide Web

(b) WAN (Wide Area Network)

(c) LAN (Local Area Network)

(d) URL (Universal Resource Locator)

Ans.  (b)

Explanation: LAN is based on peer to peer communication where each node is connected to the node and can share the data and other applications with each other. Internet helps in the interconnection of different types of LANs.

Q.4. Which of the following statements is NOT correct about the solid propellant rocket?

(a) They are heavier than the liquid propellant.

(b) They can be used in missiles with longer range.

(c) They produce greater thrust than the liquid propellant.

(d) They burn faster than liquid propellants.

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Solid propellants cannot be used in missiles with longer range as the solid propellants are heavy and not as light as liquid propellants that are used for long transportation.

Q.5. The function of oxidizer used in rocket propellants is to:

(a) Give power to the rocket.

(b) Supply air for fast burning.

(c) Supply oxygen for the burning of fuel.

(d) Provide the basic burning substances.

Ans. c

Explanation:  The fuel burns and the oxidizer provide oxygen for the burning of fuel. In most of the liquid propellants, UDMH, ultra dimethy 1 hydrazine used as fuel and nitric acid as oxidizer.

Q.6. Which of the following is not one of the impacts of ‘Aerosols’?

(a) Greater concentration of haze reflects sunlight and consequently has a cooling effect.

(b) Tiny haze particles do not act as condensation nuclei and hence lower the rainfall amount.

(c) High content of the haze makes it highly absorbent of sunlight.

(d) It disturbs the self cleaning efficiency of atmosphere.

Ans. c

Explanation: Haze does not absorb sunlight. It reflects sunlight and consequently has a cooling effect. The haze particles may be very small; consequently they even do not form good hygroscopic nuclei as well.

Q.7. The BOD (Biological Oxygen Demand) increased when:

(a) Dead vegetation settles at the bottom.

(b) There is reduction in the penetration of Sunlight.

(c) Development of zones without oxygen.

(d) Algal bloom takes place.

Ans. d

Explanation: When algal bloom takes place, then in due process, the algae die as well. The decay of algae and its decomposition eats up the oxygen of the water, causing the oxygen content to be lowered. A decreased oxygen content cause the BOD for other organism to be high as well as for the waterbody.

Q.8. From the statements provided below, choose the one which is incorrect regarding edible vaccines.

(a) Recombinant DNA technology is used for producing edible vaccines.

(b) Potato is an excellent source of vaccine production against cholera.

(c) They can be used for harvesting immunoglobulins and interferons.

(d) Plants are being used as an alternative vaccine production system.

Ans. a

Explanation: Molecular farming is the process through which edible vaccine are produced.

Q.9 Consider the statements provided below and mark the correct option.

  1. DNA finger printing uses southern blotting technology to identify the base pair sequences.

  2. It is also known as foot printing.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. a

Explanation: Foot printing is different from DNA finger printing. It identifies different characteristics with the help of protein structure analysis.

Q.10 Following interesting facts on rhinoceros are true but one-

(a) Asian rhino can be sold for more than twice its weight in gold.

(b) Their blood, urine and dung also fetch money.

(c) They have excellent eye sight.

(d) They are excellent swimmers.

Ans. c

Explanation: Rhinoceros have excellent hearing and smell but poor eyesight.

Q.11. Consider the following statements:

  1. Mercury and Venus have no satellites.

  2. Deimos is the satellite of Mars.

  3. Phobes is the satellite of Jupiter.

Which of the provided options is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 1 and 3

(d) All of these.

Ans. b

Explanation: Both Deimos and Phobos are the satellites of Mars.

Q. 12. It is dangerous to leave the car engine running in a closed garage, because it may cause serious pollution due to leoisoning by emission of

(a) SO2

(b) CO2

(c) CO

(d) unburnt petrol

Ans. c)

Explanation:  In closed garage, oxygen amount will be in less quantity so it will lead to incomplete combustion of petrol or diesel and will produce CO only.

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Q.13. Diamond is hard because

(a) It cannot be burnt.

(b) It is made up of carbon atoms.

(c) It is a giant molecule.

(d) All the four valence electrons are bonded to each carbon atom by covalent bonds.

Ans. d

Explanation: In diamond, each carbon atom is in sp3-hybridized state and linked to four other carbon atoms tetrahedrally by strong covalent bonds. So diamond is a hard substance.

Q.14. The vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon

(a) The amount of the liquid taken.

(b) The temperature of the liquid.

(c) Both on the amount as well as temperature.

(d) Neither the amount nor the temperature but only on the nature of the liquid.

Ans. b

Explanation: The vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon the temperature of the liquid.

Q.15. One finds it more difficult to walk on ice than on a concrete road because

(a) There is more friction on ice than on concrete

(b) Ice is soft and spongy whereas concrete is hard

(c) The friction between the ice and the feet is less than that between the concrete and the feet

(d) None of these

Ans. (c)

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Explanation: When there is pressure, the pressure your foot (for example) exerts on the ice, causes a very thin layer to melt, the resulting water acts as a lubricant. I9f it were cold enough (or the pressure was not significant enough) no water would be present and the ice would not be slippery.

Q.16. When water and honey be dropped individually, water comes out earlier because

(a) Viscosity of honey is less than water

(b) Viscosity of water is much higher than honey

(c) Viscosity of honey is much higher than water

(d) None of these.

Ans. (c)

Explanation: Viscosity is a measure of the resistance of a fluid which is being deformed by either shear or tensile stress.

Q.17. On a rainy day, small oil films on water show brilliant colours. This isdue to

(a) Polarization

(b) Diffraction

(c) Dispersion

(d) Interference

Ans. (d)

Explanation: Thin-film interference is the phenomenon that occurs when incident light waves reflected by the upper and lower boundaries of a thin film interfere with one another to form a new wave.

Q.18. A steel ball floats on mercury because:

(a) A steel ball can be made to float on any liquid by suitable adjustment.

(b) The density of mercury is higher than that of steel.

(c) Mercury is also a metal in the liquid form.

(d) Mercury does not allow any metallic ball to sink in it.

Ans. b

Explanation: The density of steel is about 7.9 g/cm3 and the density of mercury is 13.5 g/cm3. Therefore the buoyancy force is greater causing the steel ball to float.

Q.19. A hot and a cold body are kept in vacuum separated from each other. Which of the following cause decrease in temperature of the hot body?

(a) Temperature remains unchanged.

(b) Conduction

(c) Convection

(d) Radiation

Ans. (d)

Explanation: Radiation takes place in vacuum, convection takes place in liquids while conduction takes place in solids.

Q.20. Consider these statements regarding stars:

  1. The Sun is the star in milky way galaxy.

  2. Stars never dies.

  3. Stars are heavenely bodies which are extremely hot and have light of their own.

  4. Stars are made up of clouds of Hydrogen gas, Helium and dust.

Choose the correct codes:

(a) Only 1

(b) both 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) All of them.

Ans. d

Explanations: Stars take birth and die in three different ways-White dwarf, Black dwarf, Neutron star as Black Hole.

Q.21. The approach to management to solar energy in India includes:

(a) Solar pond

(b) Parabolic trough collector Technology

(c) Solar photovoltaic cells

(d) All the above.

Ans. d

Explanation: Solar photovoltaic cells are silicon cells which convert solar energy failing on them in the form of electricity.

Q.22. The first workable definition of sustainable development was provided by

(a) Willy Brandt Commission

(b) The Brundtland Commission

(c) The Brundtland Report

(d) None of these.

Ans. b

Explanation: The first workable definition of sustainable was provided by the Brundtland Commission, World Commission.

Q.23. “Biodiversity” is described as

(a) The influence of different geological factors in an environment.

(b) The way species differ from one another

(c) The range of different species in an environment

(d) The seasonal and daily changes in an environment

Ans. c

Explanation: Biodiversity is the totality of all the species, ecosystem and the genetic diversity.

Q.24. Human consumption is sustainable if:

(a) One does not bother on ecological footprint.

(b) The ecological footprints are uniformly equal in all parts of the world.

(c) The ecological footprints are greater than the earth’s geographical area.

(d) The ecological footprints are smaller than the earth’s geographical area.

Ans. d

Explanation: If the ecological footprints are greater than the earth’s geographical area, human consumption is not sustainable.

Q.25. Insectivorous plants are usually found in the

(a) Sodium deficient soil

(b) Carbon deficient soil

(c) Sulphur deficient soil

(d) Nitrogen deficient soil

Ans. (d)

Explanation:  Insectivorous plants such as the Pitcher plants, Venus fly trap compensate the nitrogen deficiency in their soil by consuming the insects.

Q.26. When the temperature is raised, the viscosity of a liquid decreases. This is because of

(a) Decrease convalent and hydrogen bond forces.

(b) Decreased volume of the solution.

(c) Increase in the temperature that increases the average kinetic energy of molecules which overcome the attractive force between them.

(d) Increased attraction between the molecules.

Ans. c

Explanation: With increase in temperature, viscosity of liquid decreases as the average kinetic energy of the molecules increases.

Q.27.The graphite rods in the nuclear reactor

(a) Convert fast moving neutrons into thermal neutrons

(b) Undergo combustion which triggers the nuclear fission

(c) React with U to release energy

(d) Produce neutrons

Ans. (a)

Explanation: Thermal neutrons are slow neutrons that are approximately in thermal equilibrium with a moderator. They have a distribution of speed similar to that of the molecules of a gas at the temperature of the moderator.

Q.28. Which of the following are true statement(s)?

  1. Silica causes lung disease called white lung cancer.

  2. The lung disease caused by asbestos particulates is called asbestosis.

  3. Coal miners suffer from black lung disease.

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 2 and 3

(d) All of these.

Ans. c

Explanation: Silica causes silicosis.

Q.29. A gas is liquefied

(a) Above critical temperature and pressure

(b) Above critical temperature and below critical pressure.

(c) Below critical temperature and above critical pressure.

(d) Below critical temperature and pressure.

Ans. (c)

Explanation: A gas is liquefied only if the temperature. The minimum pressure required to liquefy the gas at the critical temperature is called the critical pressure.

Q.30. The unused fat present in the body is

(a) Easily destroyed by certain enzymes present in the body.

(b) Convert into carbohydrates

(c) Removed as waste from the body

(d) Reconverted into animal fat and stored in different parts of the body

Ans. (d)

Explanation: Reserved fat acts as thermoinsulator

Q.31. Most commonly used chemical for stain removal is

(a) Mineral water

(b) Salted water

(c) Javelle water

(d) Citric acid

Ans. c

Explanation: Javelle water also Javel water is an aqueous solution of potassium or sodium hypochlorite, used as a disinfectant and bleaching agent.

Q.32. In an electrochemical cell, the electrons flow from

(a) solution to cathode.

(b) anode to solution.

(c) anode to cathode.

(d) cathode to anode.

Ans. (d)

Explanation: The electrons liberated at anode during oxidation move toward cathode where they are used up.

Q.33. When milk is churned, the cream from it gets separated due to

(a) Heat

(b) Frictional force

(c) Gravitational force

(d) Centrifugal force

Ans. d

Explanation: An object traveling in a circle behaves as if it is experiencing an outward force. This force is known as the centrifugal force. The force of spin cause the cream to get separated from the milk.

Q.34. When was Catheters first used?

(a) Fourth century BC

(b) Third century BC

(c) Second century BC

(d) First century BC

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Catheters, one of the oldest devices in medicine, are hollow tubes made of plastic or rubber that are used to either deliver or remove fluids to, or from the body. They were first used by the Greek physician Erastratus.

Q.35. Who among the following scientists first established that the Pancreas was involved in digesting fat and that liver produced sugar?

(a) Claude Bernard

(b) Dr. John Snow

(c) Louis Pasteur

(d) Rudolf Virchow

Ans. (a)

Explanation: In 1857 he established this. Claude Bernard, a French physiologist who is considered a pioneer of modern experimental physiology, became one of the most distinguished and honoured scientist in the history of France; one of the universities in Paris has been named after him.

Q.36. Who among the following first suggested that ‘infected drinking water is the main cause of Cholera?

(a) William Harvey

(b) Edward Jenner

(c) Antoine Lavoisier

(d) Dr. John Snow

Ans. d

Explanation: He suggested it first in 1849; after many years of research he was proved to be correct. Prior to his suggestion doctors used to think that Cholera was caused by something harmful in the air.

Q.37. Who among the following established the first hospital trains bringing medical facilities to the war fronts?

(a) Rudolf Virchow

(b) Louis Pasteur

(c) William Harvey

(d) Dr. John Snow

Ans.  a

Explanation: He was a German pathologist, archneologist, anthropologist and the founder of cellular pathology; he identified the abnormal cells that cause leukaemia and described the disease as a rapid enhancement of white blood cells in the body.

Q.38. A healthy person’s temperature is usually around

(a) 97 degree Fahrenheit

(b) 97.8 degree Fahrenheit

(c) 98.4 degree Fahrenheit

(d) 99 degree Fahrenheit

Ans. c

Explanation: It was a German physician, Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit, who in 1714 invented the mercury thermometer. In 1724 he introduced the temperature scale that bears his name Fehrenheit Scale.

Q.39. Who among the following was the first person to understand the process of respiration?

(a) Edward Jenner

(b) Dr. John Snow

(c) Samuel Hahnemann

(d) Antoine Lavoisier

Ans.  d

Explanation: He was a French chemist. He proved that we breathe in more oxygen when we are active and less when we are relaxing.

Q.40. Who among the following discovered the small pox vaccine?

(a) Edward Jenner

(b) Hahnemann

(c) Dr. John Snow

(d) Marshall Hall

Ans. a

Explanation: He published his paper on his discovery of the vaccine for small pox in 1748. This discovery was a great leap forward in medicine; small pox was wiped out from the entire world by 1975. This vaccine was made from cowpox sore, that is a contagious disease similar to small pox found in animal.

Q.41. Who among the following first described accurately how blood was pumped around the body by the heart?

(a) Dr. John Snow

(b) William Harvey

(c) Marshall Hall

(d) Andreas Vesalius

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Harvey, an English physician, in 1628, explained how blood was pumped from the heart throughout the body, then returned to the heart and recirculated. His work became the basis for all modern research on heart and blood vessels.

Q.42. Who among the following discovered X-rays?

(a) William Rongton

(b) Robert Koch

(c) William Halstead

(d) Ronald Ross

Ans. (a)

Explanation: He discovered these rays in 1895 by accident. However, this discovery transformed medicine, for a doctor could now se human beings’ bones without cutting open the body; he could now see what was actually with our bones or other organs and make a more accurate diagnosis.

Q.43. Who among the following first discovered the cause of malaria?

(a) Robert Koch

(b) Roland Ross

(c) William Halstead

(d) Mary Mallon

Ans. b

Explanation: He was a British physician who won the Nobel Prize in 1902 for discovering that malaria was not caused by the air but by parasites passed into the blood by mosquitoes.

Q.44. In which of the following year TB was declared a global emergency?

(a) 1991

(b) 1992

(c) 1993

(d) 1994

Ans. c

Explanation: It was declared a global emergency by WTO.

Q.45. The symptoms of active TB is/are

(a) Coughing up blood

(b) Persistent cough (3 weeks or longer)

(c) weight loss

(d) All of them

Ans. d

Explanation: TB spreads through air

Q.46. Which of the following is used to make self-luminous paint?

(a) Protium

(b) Deuterium

(c) Tritium

(d) None

Ans. c

Explanation: It is an isotop of hydrogen

Q.47. Who among the following discovered the third largest moon of Neptune?

(a) Johannes Kepler

(b) Ronald Ross

(c) Gerard Kuiper

(d) Richard Byrd

Ans. c

Explanation: It was discovered on 1 May, 1949; its name is Nereid.

Q.48. About what percentage of the world’s ice Antarctica has?

(a) 50%

(b) 100%

(c) 40%

(d) 90%

Ans. d

Explanation: 90% of Antarctica is a thick ice sheet.

Q.49. Liquid water is denser than ice due to

a) Hydrogen bonding

(b) Covalent bonding

(c) Higher Surface Tension

(d) Vander Waals force

Ans. a

Explanation: The usual valence of Hydrogen is +1 or sometimes -1.

Q.50. Which of the following is used as moderator in nuclear reactor?

(a) Heavy water

(b) Soft water

(c) Chlorine

(d) Hydrogen gas

Ans. a

Explanation: Heavy water is D2O.

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