UPPCS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Indian Polity

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UPPCS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Indian Polity

UPPCS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Indian Polity: Uttar Pradesh Public Service Commission, also known as UPPSC has officially released UPPSC Recruitment 2017 notification for Combined state/ Upper subordinate services examination. UPPSC has announced 251 vacancies for Combined Service posts all over the state for the year 2017. UPPSC Application process has begun and the last date to submit online application is 27 March, 2017. 

Most candidates have already started preparing for the preliminary examination and here is our take on UPPCS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Indian Polity. To facilitate your exam preparation for UPPSC Recruitment, here are some of the most essential questions from Indian Polity section.

 

UPPCS Prelims 2017 Important Questions on Indian Polity

Here’s a list of important questions from Indian Polity which can be expected in the actual paper that can help UPPCS aspirants to score more in the Prelims:

UPPCS Polity Important Questions

Q1. Regarding Central Sales Tax (CST)

  1. It is shared between the Centre and States.

  2. It is being phased out as a part of the process of introduction of Goods and Services Tax (GST)

  3. It is imposed and collected by the Centre.

The correct statement(s) is/are

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 3

(c) Both 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Ans. (c)

Explanation: Central Sales Tax (CST) was introduced in 1956 by the sixth Amendment of the Constitution by inserting as entry-the Entry 92-A-in the Union List in the Seventh Schedule.

Q2. Regarding the Parliament of India

  1. It has power to make laws with respect to any matter for any part of the territory of India not included in a state, notwithstanding that such matter is a matter enumerated in the State List.

  2. Any law made by the Parliament shall be deemed invalid on the ground that it would have extraterritorial operation.

The correct statement(s) is/are made with

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (a)

Explanation:  According to clause 2 of the Article 245 of the Constitution of India no law made by the Parliament of India shall be deemed invalid on the ground that it would have extraterritorial operation.

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Q3. Regarding the powers of the President of India

  1. Except in certain marginal cases referred to by the Supreme Court, refusal by the President to act according to the advice of the Council of Ministers will render him liable to impeachment.

  2. The President can, on the same matter, return a bill to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration only two times.

  3. The President has no discretionary powers.

The correct statement(s) is/are made with

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Ans. (a)

Explanation: The president is not totally devoid of discretionary power. He/she can return a bill only once for reconsideration to the Council of Ministers, on the same matter.

Q4. Regarding the Question Hour in the Indian Parliament

  1. Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha is authorized to decide whether the questions asked should be answered orally or written.

  2. Starred Questions are answered orally and no supplementary questions are allowed in it.

  3. Unless the Chairman of Rajya Sabha otherwise directs, the first hour of every sitting of the House is for asking and answering questions.

The correct statement(s) is/are made with

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 3

(c) Both 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Starred Questions are answered orally and during oral answering, supplementary questions can be asked members.

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Q5. Article 18 abolishes titles. Mark the incorrect provision(s)

  1. A foreigner holding any office of profit or truth under the state cannot accept the title from any foreign state without the consent of the Prime Minister.

  2. It prohibits the state from conferring any title (except military or academic) on anybody.

  3. It prohibits a citizen of India from accepting any title from any foreign state.

 Select your answer from the codes given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 3

(c) Both 2 and 3

(d) None of these

Ans. (a)

Explanation: A foreigner holding any office of profit or trust under the state cannot accept the title from any foreign state without the consent of the President

Q6. Consider the following statements

  1. The Parliament has the power to make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List. But such a law can b made only when a resolution is passed by the Lower Houses of the Parliament authorizing the Parliament to make such a law.

  2. A resolution passed as stated above can be extended beyond one year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

Explanation:  As per Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can authorize the Parliament to make a law on any subject mentioned in the State list on the grounds of National Interest.

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Q7. In the Speaker’s as well as the Deputy Speaker’s absence, the joint session of the Parliament is presided over by

  1. The senior most member nominated by the President

  2. The senior most member of the Lok Sabha

  3. The Chairman

  4. The Deputy Chairman

The correct statement(s) is/are made with

(a) Both 1 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 4

(d) Only 4

Ans. (d)

Explanation: A joint session of the Parliament which is held to resolve a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament is summoned by the President and is presided over by the Speaker. In his absence, it is presided over by the deputy Speaker, the Deputy Chairman presides over the session.

Q8. Which of the following is not correct regarding the State Election Commission?

(a) The State Election Commission prepares electoral roll for the Vidhan Sabha elections.

(b) A member of the State Election Commission is removed in the manner of the Judge of the High Court is removed.

(c) The State Election Commission is responsible for conducting local bodies elections.

(d) The State Election Commission is appointed by the Governor.

Ans. (a)

Explanation: The electoral roll for the Vidhan Sabha elections is prepared by the Election Commission of India.

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Q9. Which of the following is not correct about Finance Commission?

(a) It is constituted every 5 Years as per the provisions of Article 280 of the Constitution.

(b) The qualification of members of the Commission are determined by the President.

(c) It is to act as a balancing wheel of the Indian fiscal federalism.

(d) The members of the Commission are appointed by the President of India.

Ans (b)

Explanation: The qualifications of the members of the Commission are determined by an act of the Parliament.

Q10. Which among the following is/are appointed by the President of India?

  1. Chief Ministers of the union territories.

  2. Chairman of the Finance Commission.

  3. Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Both 2 and 3

(d) All of these

Ans. (b)

Explanation: The Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission is appointed by the Prime Minister.

Q.11. which one of the following expenditures is NOT charged on the consolidated fund of India?

(a) Salary and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

(b) Salary and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court of India.

(c) Salary and allowances of the judges of High Court of a State of India.

(d) Salary and allowances of the President of India.

Ans. (c)

Explanation: The Salary and allowances of the judge of High Court is charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State.

Q12. ‘Vote on Account’ is a grant voted/passed by Parliament

(a) Approval of account of public undertakings.

(b) Passage of account of expenditure is actually done.

(c) Grant to manage the administrative work in Interim period till budget and grant for financial year are passed.

(d) After the budget and grant has been voted/passed by Lok Sabha.

Ans. (c)

Explanation: Article 116 of the Constitution contains the provisions regarding Vote on Account.

Q13. Which of the Committees of the Parliament is concerned with putting a financial check on the executive?

(a) Advisory Committee

(b) Estimates Committee

(c) Public Accounts Committee

(d) Committee on Public Undertaking

Ans. (c)

Explanation: The Public Accounts Committee scrutinizes the report of the CAG and highlights the use/misuse of public money by the executive. It is headed by a Member of Lok Sabha who is from opposition political party.

Q15. Which of the following federal principles are found in the Indian Federation?

  1. Bicameral legislature at federal level.

  2. Equal representation of States in the Second House of Parliament.

  3. Independent and impartial judiciary

Select the correct answer

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 3

(c) Both 2 and 3

(d) All of these.

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Rajya Sabha represents states at Centre and independent judiciary is there to resolve a dispute between Centre and States.

Q15. What does the doctrine of ‘Pith and Substance’ that guides the operation of judicial review in India imply?

(a) Establishing credentials of the petitioner.

(b) Determining the extent of damage done by the law.

(c) Examining whether the law making authority has acted within its jurisdiction or not

(d) Distinguishing good and bad parts of an impugned law

Ans. (c)

Explanation: This doctrine was propounded by the Supreme Court in the F.N. Balsara v/s State of Bombay case, 1951.

Q16. Consider the following statements regarding Advocate-General, who is the first Law officer of a State?

  1. He/she has the right to attend and speaker in the proceedings of only State Legislative Assembly without Right to Vote.

  2. He/she is appointed by Governor and holds office during the latter’s pleasures and receives remunerations as the latter may determine.

The correct statement(s) is/are

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (b)

Explanation: He/she has the right to attend proceedings of both Houses of State.

 

Q 17. Which of the following rights is not expressly mentioned in the Part of Fundamental Rights but has been upheld as so by several pronouncements of the Supreme Court?

(a) Right to Freedom of Press.

(b) Right to form associations.

(c) Right against discrimination in Public employment.

(d) Equality before law.

Ans. a

Explanation: Right to Freedom of Press is not explicitly, while the rest of the rights have been mentioned in Part III of the Constitution.

Q18. The final decision whether a member of disqualification under the Defection Law rests with

(a) The Speaker

(b) The President

(c) The Election Commission

(d) The Supreme Court

Ans. (a)

Explanation: In case of (a) i.e., Speaker, his decision is subject to judicial review.

Q19. The Parliament of India can make use of the residuary powers

  1. during national emergency as well as constitutional emergency in a state.

  2. only during national emergency.

  3. at all times.

The correct statement(s) is/are made with

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Only 3

(d) None of these.

Ans. (c)

Explanation: These residuary powers are neither under the legislative powers of the State nor the Union. It is vested under Parliament.

Q20. The Preventive Detention Act has a restraining effect on

  1. Right to Constitution Remedies.

  2. Right to Religion.

  3. Right of Freedom.

  4. Right of Equality.

Select the correct statement(s) from the codes given below:

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) All of these.

Ans. (d)

Explanation: A person can be detained under preventive detention, if there is a suspicion or responsible probability that the person is committing some act which is likely to cause harm to the society.

Q21. Which part of the Constitution directs the State to establish Panchayati Raj institutions in the Country?

(a) The Fundamental Rights

(b) The Preamble

(c) The Directive Principles of State policy

(d) None of these.

Ans. c

Explanation: The Directive Principles of State DPSP are Policy (contained in part IV, Articles 36 to 50) of the Indian Constitution.

Q22. The impeachment of the Indian President is a

(a) Quasi-legal procedure.

(b) Legal procedure

(c) Judicial procedure

(d) Quasi-Judicial procedure

Ans. (d)

Explanation:  It is exercising powers or functions that resemble those of a court or a judge: a quasi-judicial agency.

Q23. After this stage ‘vote-on-Account’ is passed

(a) General discussion on Budget

(b) Passing of Appropriation Bill

(c) Presentation of budget

(d) Voting on demand budget

Ans. (a)

Explanation: A vote-on Account deals only with the expenditure side of the Government’s budget is a complete set of accounts, including both expenditure and receipts.

Q25. Consider these statements about the Joint Session of the Parliament

  1. The provision of Joint Session is applicable to constitutional amendment bills.

  2. Parliament has the option to pass the Lok pal Bill, 2011 through a joint session.

  3. Joint session under Article 108 of the Constitution is an extraordinary procedure to resolve a deadlock between the two houses over the passage of a bill.

The correct statement(s) is/are:

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 3

(c) Both 2 and 3

(d) All of these.

Ans. (c)

Explanation: The provision of Joint session is applicable to ordinary bills or financial bills only and not to money or constitutional amendment bills.

Q25. Regarding National Development Council (NDC)

  1. It is presided over by the President of India.

  2. It implements the Integrated Rural Development Programme.

  3. It is the highest decision making authority in the country on development matters after parliament.

  4. It was set up in 1952.

(a) Both 1 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) All of these.

Ans. (b)

Explanation: The NDC is presided over by the prime Minister of India and includes all Union Ministers, Chief Ministers of all the states, and administrations of Union territories and members of Planning Commission. Minister of state with independent charge are also invited to the deliberations of the Council.

Q26. Decisions on questions as to disqualifications of membership of either House of parliament except in anti-defection, rests with the

(a) President after consultation with Election Commission.

(b) Chief Justice of India.

(c) Election Commission on the recommendations of the Speaker/Chairman.

(d) House of Parliament concerned.

Ans. (a)

Explanation: President after consultation with Election Commissioner decides about the disqualification of member of House of Parliament except in anti-defection when Lok Sabha Speaker decides about the disqualification.

Q27. Which one of the following statements about the Union Council of Ministers is correct?

  1. It is responsible for the implementation of the Central laws.

  2. It plays a key role in the impeachment of the President.

  3. It is responsible for the administration of foreign relations.

  4. It acts as the chief advisory to the President.

Select your answer from the codes given below:

(a) Both 1 and 3

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) All of these.

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Impeachment can be done by the Parliament only.

Q28. Which one of the following is not stated as a Directive Principle of State Policy in the Constitution of India?

(a) Rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

(b) Separation of judiciary from executive.

(c) Organization of village panchayats.

(d) Uniform civil code for the citizens.

Ans. (a)

Explanation: Rights of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions is a Fundamental Rights mentioned under Article 30 of the Constitution.

Q29. The Electoral College that elects the Vice-President of India consists of:

(a) Members of the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States

(b) Members of both the houses of Parliament

(c) Elected members of both the houses of Parliament

(d) Members of Rajya Sabha only

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Article 66(1) provides for the election of the Vice-President.

Q30. Which one of the following is correct about the Supreme Court regarding its judgement?

(a) Only the ministry of law can change the judgement.

(b) Only the Chief Justice of India can change the judgement.

(c) It can change the judgement.

(d) It cannot change the judgement.

Ans. (c)

Explanation: The Supreme Court can change/revise its own judgement.

Q31.The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act has been derived from which part of the Constitution?

(a) Local Self Government

(b) Directive Principles

(c) Preamble

(d) Fundamental Rights

Ans. (b)

Explanation: Article 41 provides for Right to work, to education and public assistance in certain cases.

Q32. Which of the following is NOT correct about Finance Commission?

(a) It is constituted every 5 years as per the provisions of Article 280 of the Constitution.

(b) The qualifications of the Commission are determined by the President.

(c) The members of the Commission are appointed by the President of India.

(d) It is to act as a balancing wheel of the Indian fiscal federalism.

Ans. (b)

Explanation: The qualifications of the members of the Commission are determined by an act of the Parliament.

Q33. Which of the parliamentary Committee is an adhoc Committee?

(a) Estimates Committee.

(b) Joint Parliamentary Committee.

(c) Public Accounts Committee.

(d) Committee on Public Undertakings

Ans. (b)

Explanation: A Joint Parliamentary Committee is constituted to look into a special issue. It cease to exist after probing into the matter.

Q35. The motive of celebrating National Voters’ Day on 25th January is

(a) To fix a date for registration of names in the electoral roll.

(b) To fix a date to distribute election identity card to all the citizens.

(c) To motive people to vote and increase participation in the democratic process.

(d) All of these.

Ans. (c)

Explanation: The date 25th January marks the foundation day of the Election Commission of India. The commemoration entails upon itself to motive and inspire the younger lots to come up and get their names registered so that they take part in the democratic process of the country.

Q35. The Rangarajan Committee was formed to

(a) Study the recommendations of the Finance Commission.

(b) Study the recommendation of the Election Commission.

(c) Study the recommendation of the National Advisory Council.

(d) Study the recommendation of the National Development Council.

Ans. (c)

Explanation: The Rangaranjan Committee was formed to Study the recommendation of the National Advisory Councilon the proposed Food Security Bill.

Q.36. Which is not correctly matched?

(a) Article 108 – Joint session of Parliament.

(b) Article 110 – Money Bill

(c) Article 226 – Writ jurisdiction of the High Courts

(d) Article 125 – Adhoc j

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