CBSE UGC NET Paper I Questions with Solutions: Paper Code (W,X,Y,Z)

CBSE UGC NET Paper I Questions with Solutions: Paper Code (W,X,Y,Z)

CBSE UGC NET Paper I Questions with Solutions: Ereyesterday, The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), an autonomous organisation functioning under the Union Ministry of Human Resource Development conducted UGC Net Paper I Examination.

The exam was conducted to recruit candidates for post of Junior Research Fellow (JRF) and Assistant Professor. On candidates’ demand we are going to upload CBSE UGC NET Paper I Questions with solutions which will help candidates to recheck the answers they marked.


CBSE UGC NET Paper I Questions with Solutions: All Paper Codes (W,X,Y,Z)

Below, we have uploaded the solved UGC NET Paper I questions. There were a total of 60 UGC NET Paper I Questions asked in the NET exam. Go through Solved UGC NET Paper I questions and compare your answers.

UGC NET Paper I Questions with solutions

Q1. Assertion (A): Sustainable development critical to wellbeing of human society.

Reason (R): Environmentally sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete the natural resources. Choose the correct code:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true and (R) is true

(4) (A) is false and (R) is true

Answer: 2

Q2. The dominant source of pollution due to oxides of nitrogen (NOx) in urban areas is

(1) Road transport

(2) Commercial Sector

(3) Energy use in industry

(4) Power plants

Answer: 2

Q3. Which of the following is not a water-borne disease?

(1) Typhoid

(2) Hepatitis

(3) Cholera

(4) Dengue

Answer: 2

Q4. Which of the following is a characteristic of Web2.90 applications?

(1) Multiple users schedule their time to use Web2.0 applications one by one.

(2) Web2.0 applications are focused on the ability for people to collaborate and share information online.

(3) Web2.0 applications provide users with content rather than facilitating users to create it.

(4) Web2.0 applications use only static pages.

Answer: 2

Q: 5. With regard to a word processing software, the process of combining static information in a publication together with variable information in a data source to create one merged publication is called (1) Electronic mail

(2) Data sourcing

(3) Mail merge

(4) Spam mail

Answer: 3

Q: 6. DVD technology uses an optical media to store the digital data DVD is an acronym for

(1) Digital Vector Disc

(2) Digital Volume Disc

(3) Digital Versatile Disc

(4) Digital Visualization Disc

Answer: 3

Q: 7. Which of the following are the demerits of globalization of higher education?

(a) Exposure to global curriculum

(b) Promotion of elitism in education

(c) Commodification of higher education

(d) Increase in the cost of education

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a), (c) and (d)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 3

Q: 8. Which of the following statements are correct about deemed universities?

(A) The Governor of the State is the chancellor of deemed universities.

(B) They can design their own syllabus and course work.

(C) They can frame their own guidelines regarding admission and fees.

(D) They can grant degrees.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(1) (A), (B) and (C)

(2) (B), (C) and (D)

(3) (A), (C) and (D)

(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D) Answer: 2

Q: 9. India government’s target for power production from small hydro projects by the year 2022 is

(1) 1 Giga-Watt

(2) 5 Giga-Watt

(3) 10 Giga-Watt

(4) 15 Giga-Watt

Answer: 2

Q: 10. In which country, the recent international agreement on phasing out Hydro Fluoro Carbons (HFCs) was signed?

(1) Rwanda

(2) Morocco

(3) South Africa

(4) Algeria

Answer: 1

Q: 11. Which of the following natural hazards is not hydro-meteorological?

(1) Snow avalanche

(2) Sea erosion

(3) Tropical cyclone

(4) Tsunami

Answer: 2

Q: 12. Instead of holding the office during the pleasure of the President who among the following hold (s) office during good behavior?

(a) Governor of State

(b) Attorney General of India

(c) Judges of high court

(d) Administrator of Union Territories

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(1) (a) only

(2) (c) Only

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

Q: 13. The purpose of value education is best served by focusing on

(1) Cultural practices prevailing in the society.

(2) Norms of conduct laid down by a social group

(3) Concern for human values

(4) Religious and moral practices and instructions.

Answer: 3

Q: 14. Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Rajya Sabha is a permanent House which can be dissolved only during national emergency.

(b) Rajya Sabha does not represent the local interests of the States.

(c) Members of the Rajya Sabha are not bound to vote at the dictates of the states they represent.

(d) No Union territory has a representative in the Rajya Sabha.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

Q: 15. Which of the following are not necessarily the immediate consequences of the proclamation of the President’s Rule in a State?

(a) Dissolution of the State of Ministers in the State

(b) Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State.

(c) Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government

(d) Appointment of a new Chief Secretary

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:


(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a), (b) and (c)

(3) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

(4) (b) and (c)

Answer: 1

Q: 16. In which teaching method learner’s participation is made optimal and proactive?

(1) Discussion method

(2) Buzz session method

(3) Brainstorming session method

(4) Project method

Answer: 1

Q: 17. One of the most powerful factors affection teaching effectiveness is related to the

(1) Social system of the country

(2) Economic status of the society

(3) Prevailing political system

(4) Educational system

Answer: 4

Q: 18.

Assertion (A): Formative evaluation tends to accelerate the pace of learning.

Reason (R): As against summative evaluation, formative evaluation is highly reliable.

Choose the correct answer from the following


(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 3

Q: 19. Which of the following set of statements represents acceptable propositions in respect of teaching-learning relationships? Choose the correct code to indicate your answer.

(i) When students fail in a test, it is the teacher who fails.

(ii) Every teaching must aim at ensuring learning.

(iii) There can be teaching without learning taking place

(iv) There can be no learning without teaching.

(v) A teacher teaches but learns also Real learning implies rote learning


(1) (1) (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v)

(3) (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi)

(4) (i), (ii), (v) and (vi)

Answer: 2

Q: 20.

Assertion (A): Learning is a life long process.

Reason (R): Learning to be useful must be linked with life processes. Choose the correct answer from the following


(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: 2


Q: 21. Effectiveness of teaching has to be judged in terms of

  1. Course coverage
  2. Students’ interest
  3. Learning outcomes of students
  4. Use of teaching aids in the classroom

Answer: 3

Q: 22. Below are given two seat – research methods (Set-I) and data collection tools (Set-II). Match the two sets and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code:

Set-I Set-II

A Experimental method I Using primary secondary sources B Ex post-facto method Ii Questionnaire                                C Descriptive survey method Iii Standardized tests                         D Historical method Iv Typical characteristics tests Codes:

   A B C D

  1. 2 1 3 4
  2. 3 4 2 1
  3. 2 3 1 4
  4. 2 4 3 1

Answer: 2

Q: 23. The of ‘Research ethics’ may be considered pertinent at which stage of research?

  1. At the stage of problem formulation and its definition
  2. At the stage of defining the population of research
  3. Stage of data collection and interpretation
  4. At the stage of reporting the findings.

Answer: 4

Q: 24. In which of the following, reporting format is formally prescribed?

  1. Doctoral level thesis
  2. Conference of researchers
  3. Workshops and seminars
  4. Symposia

Answer: 1

Q: 25. The principal of a school conducts an interview session of teachers and students with a view to explore the possibility of their enhanced participation in school programmers. This endeavor may be related to which type of research?

  1. Evaluation Research
  2. Fundamental Research
  3. Action Research
  4. Applied Research

Answer: 3

Q: 26. Inn doing action research what is the usual sequence of steps?

  1. Reflect, observe, plan, act
  2. Plan, act, observe, reflect
  3. Plan, reflect, observe, act
  4. Act, observe, plan, reflect

Answer: 2

Q: 27. Which sequence of research steps is logical in the list given below?

  1. Problem formulation, Analysis, Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Collection of data, Arriving at generalizations and conclusions.
  2. Development of Research design, Hypothesis making, Problem formulation, Data analysis, Arriving at conclusions and data collection.
  3. Problem formulation, Hypothesis making, Development of a Research design, Collection of a Data; Data analysis and formulation of generalizations and conclusions.
  4. Problem formulation, Deciding about the sample and data collection tools Formulation of hypothesis, Collection and interpretation of research evidence

Answer: 3

Passage: The last Great War, which nearly shook the foundations of the modern world had little impact on Indian Literature beyond aggravating the popular revulsions against violence and adding to growing disillusionment with the ‘humane pretensions’ of the Western World. This was eloquently voiced in Tagore’s poems and his last testament, “Crisis in Civilization”. The Indian intelligentsia was in a state of moral dilemma. On the one hand, it could not help but sympathize with the England’s dogged courage in the hour of peril, with the Russians fighting with their backs on the wall against ruthless Nazi hordes, and with the China groaning under the heel of Japanese militarism; on the other hand their own country was practically under the military occupation of their own soil and the Indian army under Subhas Bose was trying from the opposite camp to liberate their country. No creative impulse could issue from such confusion of loyalties. One would imagine that the achievement of Indian independence in 1947, which came in the wake of the Allies victory and was followed by collapse of colonialism in the neighboring countries of South East Asia, would have released an upsurge of the creative energy. No doubt it did, but it was soon submerged in the great agony of partition with the inhuman slaughter of innocents and the uprooting of the millions of the people from their homeland followed by the martyrdom of Mahatma Gandhi. These tragedies along with Pakistan’s Invasion of Kashmir and its later atrocities in Bangladesh, did indeed provoke a pregnant writing, particularly in the languages of the regions most affected Bengali, Hindi, Kashmiri, Punjabi, Sindhi and Urdu. Both poignant and passionate writing does not by itself make great literature. What reserves of enthusiasm and confidence served these disasters have been mainly absorbed in the task of national reconstruction and economic development. Great literature has always emerged out of chains of convulsions. Indian literature is richer today in terms of volume, range and variety than it ever was in past.

Q: 28. Identify the factor responsible for the submergence creative energy in India literature.

  1. Military occupation of one’s own soil
  2. Resistance to colonial occupation
  3. Great agony of partition
  4. Victory of Allies

Answer: 3

Q: 29. What passage has the message that

  1. Suspicion of other countries
  2. Continuance of rivalry
  3. Menace of war
  4. National reconstruction

Answer: 4

Q: 30. The passage has the message that

  1. Disasters are inevitable
  2. Great literature emerges out of chains of convulsions
  3. Indian literature does not have a marked landscape
  4. Literature has no relation with war and independence.

Answer: 2

Q: 31. What was the impact of the last Great War on Indian literature?

  1. It had no impact
  2. It aggravated popular revulsion against violence
  3. Shook the foundations of literature
  4. It offered eloquent support to the Western World

Answer: 2

Q: 32. What did Tagore articulate in his last testament?

  1. Offered support to Subhas Bose
  2. Exposed the humane pretensions of the Western World
  3. Expressed loyalty to England
  4. Encouraged the liberation of countries

Answer: 2

Q: 33. What was the stance of Indian intelligentsia during the period of great war?

  1. Indifference to Russia’s plight
  2. They favored Japanese militarism
  3. Prompted creativity out of confused loyalties
  4. They expressed sympathy for England’s dogged courage.

Answer: 4

Q: 34. Expressive communication is driven by

  1. Passive aggression
  2. Encoder’s personality characteristics
  3. External clues
  4. Encoder-decoder contract

Answer: 2

Q: 35. Positive classroom communication leads to

  1. Coercion
  2. Submission
  3. Confrontation
  4. Persuasion

Answer: 4

Q: 36. Classroom communication is the basis of

  1. Social identity
  2. External inanities
  3. Biased passivity
  4. Group aggression

Answer: 1

Q: 37. Effective communication pre-supposes

  1. Non-alignment
  2. Domination
  3. Passivity
  4. Understanding

Answer: 4

Q: 38. When verbal and non-verbal messages are contradictory, it is that most people believe in

  1. I determinate messages
  2. Verbal messages
  3. Non-verbal messages
  4. Aggressive messages

Answer: 3

Q: 39. The typical feature of information-rich classroom lecture is in the nature of being

  1. Sedentary
  2. Staggered
  3. Factual
  4. Sectoral

Answer: 3

Q: 40. Among the following, identify the continuous type of data:

  1. Number of languages a person speaks
  2. Number of children in a household
  3. Population of cities
  4. Weight of students in a class

Answer: 4


Q.41 Ali buys a glass, a pencil box and a cup and pays rs 21 to the shopkeeper. Rakesh buys a cup, two pencil boxes and a glass and pays rs 28 to the shopkeeper. Preeti buys two glass, a cup and two pencil boxes and pays rs 35 to the shopkeeper. The cost of 10 cups will be

  1. 40
  2. 60
  3. 80
  4. 70

Answer: 4

Q.42 Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is different. Identify the odd one

  1. Lucknow
  2. Rishikesh
  3. Allahabad
  4. Patna

Answer: 1

Q.43 Given below are some characteristics of reasoning. Select the code that states a characteristic which is not a deductive reasoning

  1. The conclusion must be based on observation and experiment
  2. Conclusion should be supported by the premise/premises
  3. The conclusion must follow from the premise/premises necessarily
  4. The argument may be valid or invalid

Answer: 3

Q.44 The missing term in the series 1, 4, 27, 16, ?, 36, 243,… is

  1. 30
  2. 49
  3. 125
  4. 81

Answer: 3

Q.45 The next term in the following series

YEB, WFD, UHG, SKI, _?_ will be

  1. TLO
  2. QOL
  3. QLO
  4. GQP

Answer: 2

Q.46 If A is coded as C, M as I, N as P, S as O, I as A, P as N, E as M, O as E, and C as S, then the code of COMPANIES will be


Answer: 4

Q.47 Given below are two premised (a) and (b). from those two premises four conclusions i, ii, iii, iv are drawn. Select the code that states the conclusions validly drawn from the premises (taking singly or jointly)


  • Untouchability is a curse
  • All hot pans are untouchable


  1. (i) All hot pans are curse
  2. (ii) some untouchable things as hot pans
  3. (iii) All courses are untouchability
  4. (iv) Some courses are untouchability


  1. (i) and (ii)
  2. (ii) and (iii)
  3. (iii) and (iv)
  4. (ii) and (iv)

Answer: 1

Q.48 If the statement ‘None but the brave wins the race’ is false, which of the following statements can be claimed to be true?

  1. All brave persons win the race
  2. Some persons who win the race are not brave
  3. Some persons who win the race are brave
  4. No person who wins the race is brave

Answer: 2

Q.49 If two standard form categorical propositions with the same subject and predicate are related in such a manner that is one is undermined the other must be undetermined, what is their relation?

  1. Contrary
  2. Subcontrary
  3. Contradictory
  4. Sub-altern

Answer: 4

Q.50 Men and women may have different reproductive strategies but neither can be considered inferior or superior to the other. Any more than a bird’s winds can be considered superior or inferior to a fish’s fins. Select the code that states those two propositions

  1. Biological
  2. Physiological
  3. Analogical
  4. Hypothetical

Answer: 3

Q.51 Among the following propositions two are related in such a way that they cannot both be true but can be false.

Select the code states those two propositions


  1. (a) Every student is attentive
  2. (b) Some students are attentive
  3. (c) Students are never attentive
  4. (d) Some students are not attentive


  1. (a) and (b)
  2. (a) and (c)
  3. (b) and (c)
  4. (c) and (d)

Answer: 2

The table below embodies data on the sales revenue (rs in lakh) generated by a publishing house during the years 2012-15 while selling books, magazines and journals as three categories of items. Answer questions 31-33 based in the data contained in the table

Items 2012 2013 2014 2015
Journals 46 47 45 44
Magazines 31 39 46 51
Books 73 77 78 78

Q.52 In 2015, approximately what percent of total revenue come from books?

  1. 45%
  2. 55%
  3. 35%
  4. 25%

Answer: 1

Q.53 The number of years in which there was an increase in revenue from at least two categories of items, is

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

Answer: 3

Q.54 If the year 2016 were to show the same growth in terms of total sales revenue as the year 2015 over the year 2014, then the revenue in the year 2016 must be approximately:

  1. 194 lakh
  2. 187 lakh
  3. 172 lakh
  4. 177 lakh

Answer: 4

A University professor maintains data on MCA students tabulated by performance and gender of the students. The data is kept on a computer had disk, but accidentally some of it lost because of a computer virus. Only the following could be recovered:

Gender Average Good Excellent Total
Male 10
Female 32
Total 30


Panic buttons were pressed but to no avail. An expert committee was formed, which decided that the following facts were self-evident:

(a) Half the students were either excellent or good.

(b) 40% of the students were females

(c) One-third of the male students were average

Answer questions 34-36 based on the data given above

Q.55 How many female students are excellent?

  1. 0
  2. 8
  3. 16
  4. 32

Answer: 1

Q.56 what proportion of female students are good?

  1. 0
  2. 0.25
  3. 0.50
  4. 0.75

Answer: 2

Q.57 approximately, what proportion of good students are male?

  1. 0
  2. 0.73
  3. 0.43
  4. 0.27

Answer: 2

Q.58 Which of the following statement(s) is/are TRUE?

(a) S1: The decimal number 11 is larger than the hexadecimal number 11

(b) S2: In the binary number 1110.101, the fractional part has the decimal value as 0.625

  1. S1 Only
  2. S2 Only
  3. Both S1 and S2

4.Neither S1 nor S2

Answer: 2

Q.59 Read the following two statements:

(a) I: Information and communication Technology (ICT) is considered a subset of Information Technology(IT)

(b) II: The ‘right to use’ a piece of software is termed as copyright

Which of the above statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

  1. Both I and II

2.Neither I not II

3.II Only

  1. I Only

Answer: 3

Q.60 Which of the following correctly lists computer memory types from highest to lowest speed?

  1. i) Secondary Storage
  2. ii) Main Memory (RAM)

iii) Cache Memory

  1. iv) CPU Registers


  1. i, ii, iii, iv
  2. iv, iii, i, ii
  3. iv, iii, ii, i
  4. iii, iv, ii, i

Answer: 3

These were total 60 MCQ of Teaching Aptitude based on CBSE UGC NET Paper I Questions asked in NET exam held on 22nd JAN 2017.

**We have tried to compile the best answer, however, if you find any UGC NET Paper I Questions answer in incorrect , please feel free to comment we will be more than happy to modify the same.**

We hope that the above given questions with solutions will help candidates in a better way. So, Here we will conclude our article on CBSE UGC NET Paper I Questions (Solved): 22 January 2017.  


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  1. Out of four cities given below three are alike in some manner while the fourth one is different. Identify the odd one


    Isme lucknow answer h ? How ?? Reason >??

  2. Lucknow is the odd one out as all the rest of three cities are situated on the bank of holy river “Ganga” and lucknow is located on the bank of River gomti.

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