UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Answers With Explanation (All Sets)

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UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Answers With Explanation (All Sets)

UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Answers With Explanation (All Sets): The Union Public Service Commission conducted the Civil Services Prelims Examination yesterday and we are providing UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Answers With Explanation 2017. We are going to upload UPSC IAS Prelims Answers with explanation which will help candidates to recheck the answers they marked.

Over here, we are providing the Answers With explanation for IAS  Prelims (All Sets). Please go through it thoroughly and compare scores to see where you stand.

 

UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Answers With explanation: Check Now

OnlineTyari has compiled a comprehensive answer list for all the MCQs asked in IAS Prelims 2017. UPSC IAS Prelims Paper I contains Answers With explanation asked on the following topics:

  • Current Events National and International Events
  • Indian History and National Movement
  • India and World Geography
  • Indian Polity and Governance
  • Economic and Social Development
  • Environmental Ecology and Biodiversity Issues
  • General Science

CSAT Prelims Answers With explanation (All sets)

  1. Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya kingdom?

(a) Kakinada

(b) Motupalli

(c) Machilipatnam (Masulipatnam)

(d) Nelluru

Answer. B

Explanation- Motupalli (Krishna district)  a well-known sea-port of Kakatiya kingdom, where trade flourished due to the farsightedness of this monarch who abolished repressive taxes which foreigners had earlier been made to pay. Since Ganapati had no sons, he was succeeded by one of his daughters named Rudramba, a lady of great capacity who has been praised in the writings of Marco Polo, the Venetian traveler who visited Motupalli in 1293 A.D. Her daughter Mummadamba’s son Prataparudra was actively involved with governance from 1290 A.D. and was nominated by Rudramba as the successor to the Kakatiya throne.

  1. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of the European Union.

2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.

3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. A

Explanation: The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) is an initiative of the European Union. Its overall objective is to build a new alliance on climate change between the European Union and the poor developing countries that are most affected and that have the least capacity to deal with climate change. The GCCA does not intend to set up a new fund or governance structure, but is working through the European Commission’s established channels for political dialogue and cooperation at national and international level.
The GCCA+ aim is to boost the efficiency of its response to the needs of vulnerable countries and groups. Using ambitious and innovative approaches, it will achieve its goals by building on its two mutually reinforcing pillars:

  • Under the first pillar, the GCCA+ serves as a platform for dialogue and exchange of experience between the EU and developing countries, focusing on climate policy and bringing renewed attention to the issue of international climate finance. The results feed into negotiations for a new climate deal under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
  • Under the second pillar, the GCCA+ acts as a source of technical and financial support for the world’s most climate-vulnerable countries, whose populations need climate finance the most. Extra efforts will be made to strengthen the strategically important issues of ecosystems-based adaptation, migration and gender equality.

 

  1. With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.

2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. b

Explanation: The two major sects include – Digambar(दिगम्बर) And Shwetambar(श्वेताम्बर).95% of the practices followed are same in both the sects.

  1. Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

1. Jordan

2. Iraq

3. Lebanon

4. Syria

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer. C

Explanation: The countries with coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Morocco, Monaco, Montenegro, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia and Turkey. In addition, the Gaza Strip and the British Overseas Territories of Gibraltar and Akrotiri and Dhekelia have coastlines on the sea.

 

  1. With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.

2. It has a corpus of Rs. 4, 00,000 crore at present.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. d

Explanation: The NIIF will be established as one or more Alternate Investment Funds (AIF) under the SEBI Regulations. Of the various forms an AIF can take, NIIF was proposed to be set up as a Trust though other legal forms could also be considered from the perspective of flexibility and taxation. The proposed corpus of NIIF is Rs. 40,000 Crores (around USD 6 Billion). The initial authorized corpus of NIIF would be Rs. 20,000 crore, which may be raised from time to time, as decided by Ministry of Finance.

  1. The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an

(a) ASEAN initiative to upgrade infrastructure in Asia and financed by credit from the Asian Development Bank.

(b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital.

(c) Collaboration among the major banks of the world working with the OECD and focused on expanding the set of infrastructure projects that have the potential   to mobilize private investment.

(d) UNCTAD funded initiative that seeks to finance and facilitate infrastructure development in the world.

Answer. B

Explanation: The World Bank (WB) has launched the GIF to specifically cater to the infrastructure needs of the emerging economies and developing countries.

  • The GIF will channel money towards bankable infrastructure project in such countries.
  • GIF also places importance on sustainable development. Its key focus will be on climate friendly infrastructure investments and projects that will boost trade.

Key Objectives :

  • Mobilizing the private sector: Concentrating on financing and implementation modalities that draw together the comparative advantages of the public and private sectors to expand investment and improve infrastructure services.
  • Collaborating for best results: Mobilizing partners’ technical and financial resources in an innovative and flexible way to achieve greater leverage and address the complex infrastructure financing challenges that are beyond the resources of any individual partner.

 

  1. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

(a) anyone residing in India.

(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

(d) any citizen of India.

Answer. c

Explanation: For contesting an election as a candidate a person must be registered as a voter.Sec 4 (d) of Representation People Act, 1951 precludes a person from contesting unless he is an elector in any parliamentary constituency.

  1. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.

2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.

3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer. B

Explanation: Western Ghats – A chain of mountains running parallel to India’s western coast, approximately 30-50 km inland, the Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat.

  • Pulicat Lake is the second largest brackish water lake or lagoon in India, after Chilka Lake. It straddles the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu states.

 

  1. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for

(a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood

(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems

(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems

(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

Answer. C

Explanation:

  • Biochemical Oxygen Demand is an important water quality parameter which provides an index to assess the effect discharged wastewater will have on the receiving environment.
  • The higher the BOD value, the greater the amount of organic matter or “food” available for oxygen consuming bacteria.
  1. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.

2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.

3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Answer. b

Explanation:

  • UN-Habitat, the United Nations Human Settlements Programme, is mandated by the UN General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities. It is the focal point for all urbanization and human settlement matters within the UN system.
  • UN-Habitat envisions well-planned, well-governed, and efficient cities and other human settlements, with adequate housing, infrastructure, and universal access to employment and basic services such as water, energy, and sanitation
  1. With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning.

2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. B

Explanation: The National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) is a competency-based framework that organizes all qualifications according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills and aptitude. These levels, graded from one to ten, are defined in terms of learning outcomes which the learner must possess regardless of whether they are obtained through formal, non-formal or informal learning.

Specific outcomes expected from implementation of NSQF are:

  • Mobility between vocational and general education by alignment of degrees with NSQF
  • Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL), allowing transition from non-formal to organised job market
  • Standardised, consistent, nationally acceptable outcomes of training across the country through a national quality assurance framework
  • Global mobility of skilled workforce from India, through international equivalence of NSQF
  • Mapping of progression pathways within sectors and cross-sectorally
  • Approval of NOS/QPs as national standards for skill training

 

  1. In the context of Indian history, the principle of `Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to

(a) Division of the central legislature into two houses.

(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments.

(c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi.

(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.

Answer. D

Explanation: The Act provided a dual form of government (a “diarchy”) for the major provinces. In each such province, control of some areas of government, the “transferred list”, were given to a Government of ministers answerable to the Provincial Council. The ‘transferred list’ included agriculture, supervision of local government, health, and education. The Provincial Councils were enlarged.

At the same time, all other areas of government (the ‘reserved list’) remained under the control of the Viceroy. The ‘reserved list’ included defence (the military), foreign affairs, and communications.

  1. Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’:

1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.

2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. B

Explanation: The Government is implementing the National Career Service Project for linking employment exchanges and other institutions using technology to provide a variety of employment related services like job postings, career counselling, vocational guidance, skill courses, apprenticeship, etc.

  1. Which of the following statements best k describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?

(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.

(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.

(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.

(d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.

Answer. B

Explanation: In order to strengthen the lenders’ ability to deal with stressed assets and to put real assets back on track by providing an avenue for reworking the financial structure of entities facing genuine difficulties, the Reserve Bank of India has issued guidelines on a ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets’.

  1. Consider the following statements:

1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.

2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydro fluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. B

Explanation: The Climate and Clean Air Coalition to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (CCAC) was launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and six countries—Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, and the United States—on 16 February 2012. It focuses on O3, CH4, Black Carbon, and HFCs

 

  1. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.

2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. B

Explanation: The phenomenon is concerned to temperature differentials in Western Indian Ocean and Eastern Indian Ocean.

  1. If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Chambal River

(c) Pulicat Lake

(d) Deepor Beel

Answer. B

Explanation: National Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary is one of the dedicated sanctuaries for Gharials.

  1. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.

2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. B

Explanation: The inaugural IONS-2008 was held in New Delhi, India on 14 Feb 08.

There are 35 members – navies of the IONS which have been geographically grouped into the following four sub-regions:-

  • South Asian Littorals – Bangladesh, India, Maldives, Pakistan, Seychelles and Sri Lanka
  • West Asian Littorals – Bahrain, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, UAE and Yemen
  • East African Littorals – Comoros, Djibouti, Egypt, Eriteria, France, Kenya, Madagascar, Mauritius, Mozambique, Somalia, South Africa, Sudan and Tanzania
  • South East Asian and Australian Littorals – Australia, Indonesia, Malaysia, Myanmar, Singapore, Thailand and Timor Leste.
  1. The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at

(a) Ajanta

(b) Badami

(c) Bagh

(d)  Ellora

Answer. A

Explanation:  The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at Ajanta. Flanking a door inside the Ajanta Cave no 1 are two Bodhisattvas – Bodhisattva Padmapani and Bodhisattva Vajrapani.

  1. Consider the following pairs:

   Traditions                                            Communities

  1. Chaliha Sahib Festival                —           Sindhis
  2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra                  —           Gonds
  3. Wari-Warkari                                 —           Santhals

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) None of the above

Answer. A

Explanation: Nanda Devi Raj Jaat Yatra is a festival of Gharwali and kumauoni people in Uttarakhand Wari Warkari or Varkari(Pandharpur Wari) is a Maharashtrian festival celebrated by Marathas.

21. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture? ‎

‎1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land ‎

‎2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field ‎

‎3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field ‎

Select the correct answer using the code given below: ‎

‎(a) 1 and 2 only‎

‎(b) 3 only ‎

‎(c)  1 and 3 only ‎

‎(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. D

Explanation:  

  1. Consider the following statements:

The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at

  1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
  2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
  3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. B

Explanation:

  • Soil Health cards are necessary to ensure that only requisite nutrients are applied in the soil in a balanced manner to enhance productivity of specific crops in a sustainable manner.
  • Values on soil parameters such as pH, EC, N, P, K, S, Zn, Fe, Mn, Cu & B.
  • Recommendation on appropriate dosage of fertilizer application based on test values and requirement of crop, use of organic manures and soil amendments to acidic/alkaline/sodic soils.
  1. Consider the following pairs:

Commonly used / Unwanted or controversial chemicals consumed materials likely to be found in them

  1. Lipstic- Lead
  2. Soft drinks- Brominated vegetable oils
  3. Chinese fast food-    Monosodium glutamate

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. C

Explanation: Brominated vegetable oils are not used in soft drink manufacturing

  1. Organic Light Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?
  1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
  2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
  3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer. C

Explanation:

LCD: liquid crystal display. Works by adjusting the amount of light blocked. Usually has a backlight but might not (clocks, calculators, Nintendo Gameboy). The green-black ones can be very cheap and are a mature technology. Response time can be slow.

OLED: organic LED (rather than silicon or germanium based like regular LEDs). Comparatively recent technology,so cost still quite variable and not available in really large sizes. In theory can be printed on plastic, resulting in lighter flexible displays with good brightness, good power consumption and good response time.

  1. Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?
  1. Arasavalli
  2. Amarakantak
  3. Omkareshwar

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. A

Explanation: The famous Sun God Temple situated in Arasavalli Village which is at a distance of about 1 K.M. east of Srikakulam Town District headquarters of the North Coastal Andhra Pradesh. It is one of the ancient and all among two sun God temples in our Country. According to Padmapuranam , Sage Kasyapa installed the Idol of Surya at Arasavalli for the Welfare of mankind . Therefore, the Surya is of Kasyapasa Gotra. .

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
  2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. D

Explanation: India follows First Past the Post system; there is no provision for 50% votes. There is no provision related to it in the Constitution.

  1. Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic policies in 1991?
  1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
  2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
  3. FDI inflows increased.
  4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer. B

Explanation:  Share of agriculture in GDP is decreasing.

  1. What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology?

(a) Production of biolarvicides

(b) Manufacture of biodegradable plastics

(c) Reproductive cloning of animals

(d) Production of organisms free of diseases

Answer. C

Explanation: Somatic cell cloning is a technique in which thenucleus (DNA) of a somatic cell is transferred into an enucleated metaphase-II oocyte for the generation of a new individual, genetically identical to the somatic cell donor.

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
  2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. C

Explanation: RuPay is an Indian domestic card scheme conceived and launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI). It was created to fulfil the Reserve Bank of India’s desire to have a domestic, open loop, and multilateral system of payments in India. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.

  1. The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in V the news in the context of

(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna

(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves

(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System

(d) Security of National Highways

Answer. B

Explanation:  The full form of M-STrIPES is Monitoring System for Tigers’-Intensive Protection and Ecological Status. It’s a software monitoring system launched by the Indian Government in 2010 in some tiger reserves. The aim is to reduce vulnerability of Tigers. The system would enable field managers to assist intensity and spatial coverage of patrols in a geographic information system (GIS) domain.

  1. What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?
  1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
  2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
  3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. A

Explanation: Statements 2 and 3 are probable but not deterministic.

  1. ‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and

(a) European Union

(b) Gulf Cooperation Council

(c) Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

(d) Shanghai Cooperation Organization

Answer. A

Explanation: The EU and India have negotiated an ambitious Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement since 2007.

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
  2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
  3. TFA came into force in January 2016. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. A

Explanation:  WTO members concluded negotiations at the 2013 Bali Ministerial Conference on the landmark Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA), which entered into force on 22 February 2017 following its ratification by two-thirds of the WTO membership. The TFA contains provisions for expediting the movement, release and clearance of goods, including goods in transit. It also sets out measures for effective cooperation between customs and other appropriate authorities on trade facilitation and customs compliance issues. It further contains provisions for technical assistance and capacity building in this area. It came into being in Feb, 2017.

  1. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?

(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.

(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.

(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.

(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.

Answer. C

Explanation: The port will make way for India to bypass Pakistan in transporting goods to Afghanistan using a sea-land route. At present, Pakistan does not allow India to transport through its territory to Afghanistan. It has, however, recently allowed some Afghan shipments to come to India.

This will also give momentum to the International North-South Transport Corridor of which both are initial signatories along with Russia. Iran is the key gateway in this project. It entails the ship, rail, and road routes for moving freight between India, Russia, Iran, Europe and Central Asia. The route primarily involves moving freight from India, Iran, Azerbaijan and Russia. The objective of the corridor is to increase trade connectivity between major cities such as Mumbai, Moscow, Tehran, Baku, Astrakhan etc.

  1. In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?
  1. Service providers
  2. Data centres
  3. Body corporate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. D

Explanation: The CERT Rules impose an obligation on service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body corporates to report cyber incidents within a reasonable time so that CERT-In may have scope for timely action.

  1. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Natural Right

(c) Constitutional Right

(d) Legal Right

Answer. C

Explanation: In India, the right to vote is provided by the Constitution and the Representation of People’s Act, 1951, subject to certain disqualifications. Article 326 of the Constitution guarantees the right to vote to every citizen above the age of 18. Further “ to be elected” is also a constitutional right.

 

  1. What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)’ project?

(a) To detect neutrinos

(b) To detect gravitational waves

(c) To detect the effectiveness of missile defence system

(d) To study the effect of solar flares on our communication systems

Answer. B

Explanation: eLISA’s primary objective is the detection and examination of gravitational waves emitted by the super-massive black holes that reside in the centres of many galaxies. In addition, eLISA will measure the signals of thousands of compact binary star systems in the Milky Way.

  1. What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’?
  1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
  2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
  3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer. A

Explanation: Vidyanjali is an initiative to enhance community and private sector involvement in Government run elementary schools across the country under the overall aegis of the Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan. Through this initiative people from the Indian Diaspora, retired teachers, retired government officials including retired defence personnel, retired professionals and women who are home makers can volunteer at a school that requests for one.

Vidyanjali will also cover initiatives under the Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) and Public Private Partnership (PPP), with Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) Companies, private corporate and others.

  1. What is the aim of the programme `Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’?

(a) Achieving 100% literacy by promoting collaboration between voluntary organizations and government’s education system and local communities.

(b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies.

(c) Strengthening India’s scientific research institutions in order to make India a scientific and technological power.

(d) Developing human capital by allocating special funds for health care and education of rural and urban poor, and organizing skill development programmes and vocational training for them.

Answer. B

Explanation: The objectives of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan are broadly two-fold:

  1. i) Building institutional capacity in Institutes of higher education in research & training relevant to the needs of rural India.
  2. ii) Provide rural India with professional resource support from institutes of higher education, especially those which have acquired academic excellence in the field of Science, Engineering & Technology and Management
  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
  2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Answer. D

Explanation: Originally in 1950, the commission had only a Chief Election Commissioner. The Election Commissioner Amendment Act, 1989 made the Commission a multi-member body. The concept of a 3-member Commission has been in operation since then. Home Ministry is consulted for that, schedule is not decided by them.

Splits, mergers and alliances have frequently disrupted the compositions of political parties. This has led to a number of disputes over which section of a divided party gets to keep the party symbol, and how to classify the resulting parties in terms of national and state parties. The Election Commission has to resolve these disputes, although its decisions can be challenged in the courts.

  1. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?

(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.

(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.

(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India.

(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.

Answer. A

  1. In India, Judicial Review implies

(a) the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.

(b) the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.

(c) the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.

(d) the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.

Answer. A

Explanation: Judicial Review refers to the power of the judiciary to interpret the constitution and to declare any such law or order of the legislature and executive void, if it finds them in conflict the Constitution of India.

  1. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events :
  1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
  2. Quit India Movement launched
  3. Second Round Table Conference 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1-2-3

(b) 2-1-3

(c) 3-2-1

(d) 3-1-2

Ans.  C

Explanation: Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy: 18 February 1946, Quit India Movement: 8 August 1942, Second Round Conference: 1931.

  1. Consider the following statements :
  1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
  2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. A

Explanation: Fiscal Deficit has decreased in the last decade.

  1. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites ?

(a) Corbett National Park

(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary

(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Sariska National Park

Answer. B

Explanation: An environment ministry’s expert committee has approved Kuno Palpur in Madhya Pradesh as the second home for Asiatic lions found only in Gir national park.

  1. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
  1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
  2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
  3. Dissolution of the local bodies

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2and 3

Answer. C

Explanation: During President’s rule, the Council of Ministers stands dissolved. According to Article 365, if a state government fails to exercise its executive powers in compliance with the directions given by the Union government, the responsibility shifts to the governor of the state to assess the situation and recommend the dissolution of state Assembly to the Union cabinet. This proclamation is made by the President only when the governor is convinced that the state cannot function in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. Although the power of dissolution of state Assembly is vested with the Governor, yet such a power can be exercised only after both Houses of Parliament approve the decision. If the proclamation made by the President under Article 356 to dissolve the Assembly is approved by both the Houses within two months, the government does not revive on the expiry of period of dissolution. It is not related to the dissolution of the local bodies.

  1. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
  1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
  2. Abolition of untouchability
  3. Protection of the interests of minorities
  4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer. C

Explanation: Article 23 prohibits the traffic in human beings and forced labor such as begar.

Article 24 is against the child labour.

Article 17 is related to untouchability.

  1. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar ?

(a) Sumatra

(b) Borneo

(c) Java

(d) Sri Lanka

Answer. A

Explanation: Sumatra is just 150 Km away from Great Nicobar.

  1. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

(a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.

(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.

(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.

Answer. C

Explanation:  A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.

  1. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

(a) There is an independent judiciary in India.

(b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.

(c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.

(d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

Answer. c

Explanation: There is no Equality of State Representation in Rajya Sabha.

  1. The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to?

(a) Define the jurisdiction of the Central and Provincial Governments.

(b) Define the powers of the Secretary of State for India.

(c) Impose censorship on national press.

(d) Improve the relationship between the Government of India and the Indian States.

Answer. D

Explanation: The Indian States committee appointed a committee under the chairmanship of Sir Harcourt Butler which was popularly known as the Butler Committee to investigate and clarify the relationship between the paramount power and Princes of Princely States in 1927 AD. Committee visited 16 states and submitted its report in 1929.

  1. The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to

(a) Developing solar power production in our country

(b) Granting licences to foreign T.V. channels in our country

(c) Exporting our food products to other countries

(d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country

Answer. A

Explanation:  The policy of Domestic Content Requirement is with intent to promote the local manufacturing of the components of solar generation equipment which includes the cells and modules.

  • With an objective to establish India as a global leader in solar energy , the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy Launched its National Solar Policy in 2010 named as Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission (JNNSM). Phase 1 of the National policy was composed of 2 parts.
  • Batch 1 of policy implementation: India required developers of solar photovoltaic projects employing crystalline silicon technology to use solar modules manufacture in India
  • Batch 2 India expanded this domestic sourcing requirement to crystalline silicon solar cells as well.
  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
  2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. D

Explanation: The idea of Nuclear Security Summit (NSS) was mooted by the US President Barack Obama in 2009 and the first summit was held in 2010 in Washington. It is a signature event of global diplomacy in Obama’s presidency that aimed at preventing nuclear terrorism around the globe. India has been contributing its bit to strengthen nuclear security by taking an active part in the summit ever since its inception in 2010.

    • The fourth edition of Nuclear Security Summit (NSS) began in Washington, United States to discuss a gamut of issues pertaining to nuclear security
    • India is being represented by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in the two-day summit. The fourth summit is the last summit under the current format and also under the presidency of Barack Obama.
  1. Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)?

(a) Resident Indian citizens only

(b) Persons of age from 21 to 55 only

(c) All State Government employees joining the services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments

(d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1St April, 2004

Answer. C

Explanation: The Central Government had introduced the National Pension System (NPS) with effect from January 1, 2004 (except for armed forces).

  • Subsequently, various State Governments adopted this architecture and implemented NPS with effect from different dates.
  • Eligibility – Any citizen of India, whether resident or non-resident, subject to the following conditions. Individuals who are aged between 18 – 60 years, including NRIs . After attaining 60 years of age, you will not be permitted to make further contributions to the NPS accounts.
  1. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:
  1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
  2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
  3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. B

Explanation: The Teesta River originates from the Pahunri glacier above 7,068 metres and flows southward through gorges and rapids in the Sikkim Himalaya. Pauhunri is a mountain in the Eastern Himalayas located on the border of Sikkim, India and Tibet, China, and is situated about 75 km northeast of Kangchenjunga.

Teesta River is a tributary of the Jamuna River (Brahmaputra), flowing through India and Bangladesh. Brahmaputra finally merges into Bay of Bengal

The Rangeet is a tributary of the Teesta river, which is the largest river in the Indian state of Sikkim. The Rangeet river originates in the Himalayan mountains in West Sikkim district. The river also forms the boundary between Sikkim and Darjeeling district.

  1. Consider the following statements:

In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.

  1. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
  2. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. C

Explanation: Dengue and Zika are both mosquito borne viruses spread especially by the Aedes Aegypti mosquito species.

Evidence has emerged that the Zika virus can actually be transmitted through sex and blood transfusion. This is an element that has also created some difference between the two even though the sexual transmissions are still on the low.

Apart from exercising mosquito related preventions, people need to exercise safer sex to reduce Zika infections.

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
  2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. A

Explanation: The Product Certification Scheme of BIS aims at providing Third Party Guarantee of quality, safety and reliability of products to the customer.

Presence of ISI certification mark, known as Standard Mark, on a product is an assurance of conformity to the specifications.

Under Product Certification, Mandatory certification is there for Automobile Accessories such as automotive vehicles –Tubes and pneumatic tyres

AGMARK (Agricultural Mark) is a certification issued by Directorate of Marketing and Inspection for agricultural produce.

  1. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?
  1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
  2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. C

Explanation: National Agriculture Market (NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing APMC (Agricultural produce market Committee) mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities.
NAM created a unified market through online trading platform, both, at State and National level and promotes uniformity, streamlining of procedures across the integrated markets, removes information asymmetry between buyers and sellers and promotes real time price discovery, based on actual demand and supply, promotes transparency in auction process, and access to a nationwide market for the farmer, with prices commensurate with quality of his produce and online payment and availability of better quality produce and at more reasonable prices to the consumer.

  1. With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:
  1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
  2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. C

Explanation: The National IPR Policy recognizes that India has a well-established TRIPS-compliant legislative, administrative and judicial framework to safeguard IPRs, which meets its international obligations while utilizing the flexibilities provided in the international regime to address its developmental concerns.
 It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement.
IPR Policy objectives are sought to be achieved through detailed action plan which is monitored by DIPP (the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee implementation and future development of IPRs in India)

  1. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?
  1. Gharial
  2. Indian wild ass
  3. Wild buffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.  D

Explanation: The Government of India subsequently accorded the highest level of protection to Gharial by bringing it under Schedule I of the Wild Life Protection Act, 1972. In 1976, Project Crocodile was initiated with support from the United Nations Development Programme and Food and Agriculture Organization.

The Indian wild ass is a subspecies of the onager native to Southern Asia. As of 2016, it is listed as Near Threatened by IUCN.

Wild Buffalo is also listed under the Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

  1. Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
  1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
  2. They are correlative to legal duties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. D

Explanation:  Fundamental duties are neither enforceable, nor have legal recognition.

  1. Consider the following pairs:
  1. Radhakanta Deb — First President of the British Indian Association
  2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty —Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha
  3. Surendranath Banerjee — Founder of the Indian Association

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.  B

Explanation: Madras Mahajana Sabha was established by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. SubramaniaIyer and P. Anandacharluin May 1884.

  1. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

(a) Liberty of thought

(b) Economic liberty

(c) Liberty of expression

(d) Liberty of belief

Ans.  B

Explanation: Line 3 of the Preamble mentions,

LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;

  1. With reference to ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:
  1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
  2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c)  Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. C

Explanation: Formed in 1997, the Quality Council of India was set-up by the Confederation of Indian Industry, the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry, and the Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry.

QCI is governed by a Council comprising of 38 members including the Chairman and Secretary General. The Council has an equal representation of Government, Industry and other Stakeholders.

The chairman selection is approved by the PM upon suggestion from the body stakeholders.

  1. What is the purpose of setting up of Small 9 Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?
  1. To supply credit to small business units
  2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers
  3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up business particularly in rural areas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. A

Explanation: RBI’s guidelines for Small Banks Eligibility – Professionals with 10 years of experience in banking / finance / Micro Finance Institutions.

The minimum capital requirement is Rs 100 crore (minimum paid-up equity capital).

Local focus and ability to serve smaller customers will be a key criterion in licensing such banks.

The bank shall primarily undertake basic banking activities of accepting deposits and lending to small farmers, small businesses, micro and small industries, and unorganized sector entities. It cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake non-banking financial services activities. After the initial stabilization period of five years, and after a review, the RBI may liberalize the scope of activities for Small Banks.

The area of operations would normally be restricted to few districts (near-by) of a state. However, if necessary, it would be allowed to expand its area of operations beyond contiguous districts in one or more states with reasonable geographical proximity.

Small Banks have to meet RBI’s norms and regulations regarding risk management. They have to meet CRR and SLR requirements, like any other commercial bank.

The maximum loan size and investment limit exposure to single/group borrowers/issuers would be restricted to 15 per cent of capital funds. For the first three years, 25 per cent of branches should be in unbanked rural areas.

Of the loans issued by Small Banks, 75% should be to the so-called priority sector which includes agriculture and small businesses. And half the loan portfolio of the banks should be loans and advances of up to Rs.25 lakh to micro finance businesses.

  1. With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:
  1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
  2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. D

Explanation: The first conference was held in New Delhi in 2006, but its theme was, A vision for sustainable urbanisation in the Asia-Pacific by 2020.

  1. Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact 9 that it calls into activity

(a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

(b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.

(c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.

(d) a band of dedicated party workers.

Ans.  A

Explanation: A democracy is superior, because it allows a right to every adult citizen, without any educational and wealth criterion.

  1. Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?

(a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments.

(b) Digital currency will totally replace the physical currency in about two decades.

(c) FDI inflows will drastically increase.

(d) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people will become very effective.

Ans. A

Explanation: UPI is expected to further propel easy instant payments via mobile, web, and other applications. The payments can be both sender (payer) and receiver (payee) initiated and will be carried out in a secure, convenient, and integrated fashion. Virtual payment addresses, 1-click 2-factor authentication, Aadhaar integration, use of payer’s smartphone for secure credential capture, etc. are some of the core features. It supports the growth of e-commerce, while simultaneously meeting the target of financial inclusion.

  1. The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, `String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of

(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe

(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses

(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth

(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth

Answer. A

Explanation: All these terms come from theoretical physics branch, which investigates into state of matter and composition, origin, and extent of universe.

  1. With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of `genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?
  1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
  2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
  3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer.  D

  1. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

(a) the executive and legislature work independently.

(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature.

(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Ans. C

Explanation:

  • Executive branch is directly responsible to the legislature.
  • A parliamentary system is a system of democratic governance of a state where the executive branch derives its democratic legitimacy from its ability to command the confidence of the legislative branch.
  1. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

(a) Rights are correlative with Duties.

(b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.

(c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.

(d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

Ans.  A

Explanation:

  • Rights and duties are two phases of the same thing. Rights are considered to be essential for the expansion of human personality. They offer to the individual a sufficient scope for free action and thus prepare ground for self-development. Although rights arc of great significance in a democratic stale yet they become meaningless in the absence of duties.
  • Rights can be enjoyed only in the world of duties. For every right there is corresponding duty. When the people fail to discharge their duties properly, the rights all become meaningless.
  1. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

(a) The Preamble

(b) The Fundamental Rights

(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) The Fundamental Duties

Ans. A

Explanation: 

The Preamble to a Constitution embodies the fundamental values and the philosophy, on which the Constitution is based, and the aims and objectives, which the founding fathers of the Constitution enjoined the polity to strive to achieve. The importance and utility of the Preamble has been pointed out in several decisions of the Supreme Court of India.

  1. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

(a) 6

(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 9

Ans. B

Explanation: Nagaland (Kohima) – Assam – WestBengal – Orissa – Andhra Pradesh – Tamilnadu – Kerala (Kottayam)

  1. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
  1. Adjournment motion
  2. Question hour
  3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. D

Explanation:

  • The Parliament keeps a day-to-day watch over the activities of the Executive. As ours is a parliamentary system of Government, the Executive is responsible to the Parliament for all acts.
  • Members of the Parliament have a right to ask questions and supplementary question to the Ministers. Any lapses or mishandling on the part of the Government can be exposed in the Parliament.
  • Adjournment motions may be moved to discuss serious administrative lapses. Through adjournment motions, matters of public importance can be brought to the notice of the Government by the members of the Parliament.
  1. With reference to the Parliament of India, 4 consider the following statements:
  1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
  2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. D

Explanation:

  • Members of parliament other than ministers are called private members and bills presented by them are known as private member’s bills.
  • Any MP can introduce a bill in parliament. Private member bills are bills introduced in parliament by MPs who are not ministers.
  • Only 14 private members’ bills passed since Independence. The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill, 2014, passed by the Rajya Sabha on Friday is the first private member’s bill to get the ujpper house’s approval in the past 45 years.
  1. With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
  2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
  3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.  C

Explanation:

    • Indus people were basically peace loving. Their arms (swords, daggers, arrow-heads, and spears) were primitive in nature. No evidence of armour, helmet, body armour or shield is available. The Aryans, on the contrary, were warlike people and were conversant with all kinds of traditional arms and armour and had devised a full-fledged ‘science of war’.
    • The horse, which played a decisive role in the Aryan system of warfare, was not known to the Indus people. A few bones of horse and terracotta figure of a ‘horse-like animal’ have been unearthed from Surkotada (Gujarat) and still it has not been convincingly proved that the horse was employed by the Harappans.
    • The Indus valley people knew the use of copper, bronze, silver, gold but not iron.

 

  1. Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to

(a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.

(b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.

(c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.

(d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.

Ans. D

Explanation:  Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) with the objective of this Skill Certification Scheme to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood.

Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme

Individuals with prior learning experience or skills shall be assessed and certified under the Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) component of the Scheme. RPL aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the NSQF (National Skills Qualification Framework).

  1. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

(b) Nallamala Forest

(c) Nagarhole National Park

(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

Ans.  A

Explanation:

  • Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Tiger Reserve is a protected area and tiger reserve along the Western Ghats in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu
  • Sathyamangalam forest range is a significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats
  1. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

(a) Privileges

(b) Restraints

(c) Competition

(d) Ideology

Ans. A

Explanation: Equality in society is The Absence of Special Privileges. Thus no person, family or class or group or persons in a society can be granted special privileges if we have to achieve Equality and liberty in a society.

  1. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):

 

  1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. B

Explanation: TRAFFIC has an enviable reputation as a reliable and impartial organisation, a leader in the field of conservation as it relates to wildlife trade. TRAFFIC was established in 1976 and has developed into a global network, research-driven and action-oriented, committed to delivering innovative and practical conservation solutions based on the latest information.

TRAFFIC also works in close co-operation with the Secretariat of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
TRAFFIC, the wildlife trade monitoring network, works to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

  1. Which principle among the ‘following was added to the Directive Principles of Stat Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b) Participation of workers in the management of industries

(c) Right to work, education and public assistance

(d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

Answer. B

Explanation: 42nd amendment act added participation of workers in the management of industries. New directives was added by new articles 39A, 43A, 48A which, respectively, provide for equal justice and free legal aid to economically backward classes, participation of workers in the management of industries, and protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.

  1. Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

(b) Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.

(c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.

(d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

Answer. C

Explanation: Rights are claims of citizen of India against the states. They prevent the establishment of an authoritarian and despotic rule in the country, and protect the liberties and freedoms of the people against the invasion by the State. They operate as limitations on the tyranny of the executive and arbitrary laws of the legislature. In short, they aim at establishing ‘a government of laws and not of men’.

  1. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?

(a) World Economic Forum

(b) UN Human Rights Council

(c) UN Women

(d) World Health Organization

Answer. A

Explanation: The Global Gender Gap Report was first published in 2006 by the World Economic Forum. The 2016 report covers 144 major and emerging economies. The Global Gender Gap Index is an index designed to measure gender equality.

  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?
  1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
  2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
  3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer. B

Explanation: Smart India Hackathon 2017 harnesses creativity & expertise of students, builds funnel for ‘Startup India, Standup India’ campaign, crowd sources solutions for improving governance and quality of life, and provides opportunity to citizens to provide innovative solutions to India’s daunting problems.

  1. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?
  1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
  2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
  3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer. A

Explanation: The Monetary Policy Committee would be entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required to contain inflation within the specified target level.
It consists of 6 members. The Members of the Monetary Policy Committee appointed by the Central Government shall hold office for a period of four years.
The Governor of the Bank—Chairperson, ex officio;

  1. With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:
  1. It is a song and dance performance.
  2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
  3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3.

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Answer. B

Explanation: Manipuri Sankirtana is a form of performing art involving ritual singing, drumming and dancing performed in the temples and domestic spaces in Manipur State in India. Through the performances which exhibit unparalleled religious devotion and energy, the performers narrate the many stories of Krishna often moving the spectators to tears. Dances are very much based upon the cymbals (kartal or manjira) and the cylindrical drum known as Manipuri mridang or pung.

  1. Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?
  1. Lord Cornwallis
  2. Alexander Read
  3. Thomas Munro

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. C

Example: Lord Cornwallis is associated with zamindari system.

  1. In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

 

  1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
  2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
  3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.  D

Explanation: Bioremediation provides a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation processes that occur in nature. Depending on the site and its contaminants, bioremediation may be safer and less expensive than alternative solutions such as incineration or landfilling of the contaminated materials. It also has the advantage of treating the contamination in place so that large quantities of soil, sediment or water do not have to be dug up or pumped out of the ground for treatment.

However, not all contaminants are easily treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. For example, heavy metals such as cadmium and lead are not readily absorbed or captured by microorganisms, but occurs in phytoremediation which is part of bioremediation.

The use of genetic engineering to create organisms specifically designed for bioremediation has great potential.

  1. The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for

(a) the participation of workers in the management of industries.

(b) arbitrary powers to the management to quell industrial disputes.

(c) an intervention by the British Court in the event of a trade dispute.

(d) a system of tribunals and a ban on strikes.

Ans.  A

Explanation:  

  1. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

(a) Federalism

(b) Democratic decentralisation

(c) Administrative delegation

(d) Direct democracy

Ans.   B

Explanation: The main purpose of democratic decentralization, however, is to bring fundamental changes in the traditional outlook about the power structure of the government. Thus, democratic decentralization means decentralization of power. The source from which this power is decentralized is based on the democratic structure and hence, such decentralization is called the democratic decentralization.

  1. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon

  1. legislative function.
  2. executive function.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.  D

Explanation: DPSP does not place any limitation on legislative and executive function, it is simply a guideline.

  1. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to

(a) ASEAN

(b) BRICS

(c) EU

(d) G20

Answer. C

Explanation: The Digital Single Market strategy aims to open up digital opportunities for people and business and enhance Europe’s position as a world leader in the digital economy.

94, At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the sea floor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at

(a) Bhavnagar

(b) Bheemunipatnam

(c) Chandipur

(d) Nagapattinam.

Answer. C

Explanation: The beach is unique in that the water recedes up to 5 kilometers during the ebb tide. When the tide is in, locals trawl for small fish along the coast.

  1. With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements:
  1. A property transaction is not treated as a benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
  2. Properties held benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
  3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.

Which of the statements .given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans. B

Explanation: Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988 is an Act of the Parliament of India that prohibits certain types of financial transactions. The act defines a ‘benami’ transaction as any transaction in which property is transferred to one person for a consideration paid by another person. Such transactions were a feature of the Indian economy, usually relating to the purchase of property (real estate), and were thought to contribute to the Indian black money problem. The act bans all benami transactions and gives the government the right to recover property held benami without paying any compensation.

  1. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences?
  1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
  2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
  3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. C

Explanation:  pollination is affected adversely and the predators of butterflies are also affected, do not have impact on fungal infection.

  1. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?
  1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
  2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
  3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. B

Explanation: Algae can be grown using land and water not suitable for plant and food production. The algal biofuel technology includes selection of specific species for production and extraction of valuable co-products. The algaes are bioengineered for achieving advanced photosynthetic efficiencies through continued development of production system.
To make the industry commercially viable, researchers have pursued biotech varieties, which could be particularly dangerous if released into nature. Some algae biodiesel proposals involve aquaculture-style operations in open ocean waters, which could have harmful ecological effects, especially if biotech algae is used.
Water and nutrient use would also be extreme, making any serious scaling up of algae biofuels quite unsustainable.

  1. Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?
  2. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
  3. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
  4. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
  5. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Answer. A

Explanation: The key objectives of these programmes are as under:
• To create awareness relating to malnutrition amongst pregnant women, lactating mothers, promote healthy lactating practices and importance of balanced nutrition;
• To improve maternal and child under-nutrition in 200 high burdened districts and to prevent and reduce the under-nutrition prevalent among children below 3 years;
• To reduce incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.

  1. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
  2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer. B

Explanation:  Narayan Meghaji Lokhande (1848-1897) was a pioneer of the labour movement in India. During Lord Ripon’s time, the first Factories Act was adopted in 1881. Following this act , a Factory Commission was appointed in 1885. There was another Factories Act in 1891, and a Royal Commission on Labor was appointed in 1892. The result of these enactments was the limitation on the factory working hours. This was an answer of the Government to the pathetic conditions of the workers in the factory, wherein, only when a laborer exhausted, new laborer was to take his / her place.

  1. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?
  1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
  2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
  3. Subterranean deep saline formations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer. D

Explanation: Capturing CO2 from the major stationary sources and its storage into deep geological formations is considered as a potential mitigation option. Geological storage of CO2 can be undertaken in a variety of geological settings in sedimentary basins.

The options for CO2 are as follows:

  • Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
  • Use of CO2 in FOR
  • Deep unmineable coal seams/enhanced coalbed methane (ECBM) recovery
  • Oceans
  • Deep unused saline water-saturated formations
  • Other geological media are basalts, shales, and cavities
  • Subterranean deep saline formations

Here we conclude our article on UPSC IAS Prelims 2017 Answers With explanation 2017. Stay connected for more information regarding UPSC Civil Services Exam Recruitment 2017. To excel in Civil Services Examination, Download the Best IAS Exam Preparation App for free.

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