99 Most Expected Current Affairs Questions for IAS Prelims 2017

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99 Most Expected Current Affairs Questions for IAS Prelims 2017

99 Most Expected Current Affairs Questions for IAS Prelims 2017: Millions of aspirants appear for the Civil Services Examination every year. As of now, Union Public Services Commission (UPSC) is going to conduct IAS Prelims Examination tomorrow.

To help candidates to the fullest, we are going to share 99 Most Expected Current Affairs questions which will definitely help them facilitate their revision.

Searching for expected questions? You got a one-stop shop. Scroll down to update yourself!

 

99 Most Expected Current Affairs Questions for IAS Prelims

The Questions, that we are going to share in this post are from Current Affairs Section only. Why you should Read these Questions?

It is expected that 60 to 70 % of Questions from Current Affairs Section may be asked from these Expected Questions. It’s Just a probability and we advise you to Prepare all the Topics. We have compiled the Questions in such a way that it covers all the important Topics. It is a must revise before you appear for the exam, to test your preparation for the exam.

Q.1 The CEPI (Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations) has officially launched at 2017 World Economic Forum (WEF) to create new vaccines for emerging infectious diseases. The CEPI has been formed with initial funding of $460 million from the governments/ organizations of which of the following countries/organizations.

  1. Germany
  2. Japan
  3. Norway
  4. The Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation
  5. Welcome Trust.

Choose the correct options from the following.

(A) 1,2 and 3 (B) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation: Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations The Coalition for Epidemic Preparedness Innovations (CEPI) has officially launched at 2017 World Economic Forum (WEF) to create new vaccines for emerging infectious diseases. The CEPI has been formed with initial funding of $460 million from the governments of Germany, Japan, and Norway, as well as the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation and the Wellcome Trust. Initially, the CEPI group is targeting the 3 infectious diseases viz. The Middle East respiratory syndrome (MERS)-coronavirus, Lassa fever, and Nipah virus. All three have the potential to cause large outbreaks and the goal is to have two potential vaccines for each of these viruses ready before an epidemic hit. The group may also provide support for research on strains of the Ebola, Marburg and Zika viruses.

Q2. With reference to Electronic Voting Machines, consider the following statements:

  1. The software used in these machines is installed into a onetime programmable chip to prevent tampering.
  2. All EVMs across India are networked through a private encrypted network of the Election Commission of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: An EVM consists of a control unit and a balloting unit. The control unit is with the Election Commission appointed polling officer; the balloting unit is in the voting compartment into which the voter enters to cast her vote in secret by pressing the button against the name and symbol of the candidate of her choice. The machine is electronically protected to prevent any tampering/manipulation. The program (software) used in these machines is burnt into a One Time Programmable (OTP)/Masked chip so that it cannot be altered or tampered with.

Hence, statement 1 is correct.

ECI uses Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT), which gives a verified paper record with a view to enhancing transparency. Further, these machines are not networked either by wire or by wireless to any other machine or system. Therefore, there is no possibility of its data corruption. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q3. TSR Subramanian Committee was constituted to review environmental regulation in India. In this context, which of following is/are the recommendations of the committee?

  1. Creation of an umbrella law by subsuming the existing environmental laws.
  2. Establishment of National Environment Management Authority (NEMA) and State Environment Management Authority (SEMA).
  3. Establishment of Environment Reconstruction Fund.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Which facility was announced for senior citizens in Budget 2017-2018?

(A) Aadhaar-enabled smart cards (B) BHIM app

(C) Shakti Kendras (D) None of the above

Explanation: 

The recent Budget development on Aadhaar is that senior citizens would receive Aadhaar based smart cards for their health and well-being. Aadhaar-based smart cards would comprise health details of senior citizens. The FM further said that the pilot service of these cards would take off in 15 cities initially in India beginning this year. The announcement for this new initiative shows how the government is focused on the path of makingAadhaar the core platform in different services. The government recently said that as of now more than 111 crore citizens in the country have an Aadhaar number. This unit covers more than 99 percent of the Indian adult population. Following demonetization, the enrollment for Aadhaar also increased to 7 to 8 lakh per day as against 5 to 6 lakh till October 2016. The government also reported a rise of 2.69 crore transactions of Aadhaar-based enabled payments in November 2016, which increased to 3.73 crores in December 2016 and 2.06 crore transactions in the first half of January.

Q5. Madhukar Gupta Committee, recently seen in the news, was constituted to recommend measures for:

(A) encouraging deep sea fishing (B) strengthening border protection.

(C) broadening of the tax base (D) preventing forest fires.

Explanation: strengthening border protection.

The Committee constituted under the Chairmanship of Shri Madhukar Gupta, has submitted its report to the Government to strengthen border protection and address vulnerabilities in fencing along the Indo- Pakistan border. The Committee has given its recommendations broadly on the issues of Threats and Border Protection, assessment of force level, deployment on the border, infrastructure and technology issues for the protection of border and administrative issues.

Q6. In India growth is mainly driven by

(A)Decrease of imports (B)Increase in exports

(C)Domestic demand (D)Controlling inflation

Explanation:

In India, although the growth is driven by domestic demand, the contribution of exports to economic growth Is important as exports of goods and services account for about one-fourth of the GDP. Domestic consumption is more and is fuelling the current growth.

Q7. Which of the following are initially identified circuits under SWADESH DARSHAN Scheme

  1. Buddhist Circuit
  2. North-East Circuit
  3. Wildlife circuit
  4. Spiritual Circuit

Choose the correct answer from options below:

(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 1 and 4

(C)Only 1, 2 and 3 (D) All of the above

Explanation:

5 Circuits are identified initially – North-East Circuit, Buddhist Circuit, Coastal Circuit, Himalayan Circuit and Krishna Circuit. 3 projects one each in North-East, Buddhist and Coastal Circuits are sanctioned in 2014-15. The Odisha Government has sought inclusion of Odisha’s Diamond Triangle of Buddhist sites (Ratnagiri, Udayagiri, and Lalitagiri) in the SWADESH DARSHAN Scheme. Tourism Ministry has already identified Bodh Gaya, Rajgir and Vaishali in Bihar and Kapilavastu, Sarnath, Sravasti and Kushinagar in Uttar Pradesh under the Buddhist circuit of SwadeshDarshan. Even though the Diamond Triangle in Odisha has immense potential to draw domestic and international travelers, the Union Ministry is yet to shift its focus towards it due to lack of tourist infrastructure at these sites. Funds from SwadeshDarshan can help in developing tourism amenities at these sites.

Q8. A special initiative called Hunar Se RozgarTak (HSRT) and Hunar Se RozgarTak :BadhateKadam are launched by

(A) Ministry of Labour and Employment

(B) Ministry of Tourism

(C) Ministry of Human Resources

(D) Both A and C

Explanation:

The Ministry of Tourism launched a special initiative called Hunar Se RozgarTak (HSRT) in theyear 2009-10 for creation of employable skills amongst youth. The initiative is fully funded bythe Ministry of Tourism. It covers trades like food production, food & beverage service,housekeeping Utility, Bakery & Patisserie, Driving, Stone Masonry, Golf Caddies and TouristFacilitation, etc. In December, 2014, the HSRT Initiative was opened to private participationunder a distinct vertical titled Hunar Se RozgarTak: BadhateKadam. The objective is to enhancetheprogrammes reach and delivery. Now the Industrial units, associations of industries,professional/ skill developing agencies with proven credentials; and Hospitality Institutesapproved by the AICTE / National Skill Development Authority / State Governments / UnionTerritory Administrations can participate and contribute to the skill needs in the hospitalitytrade. The trades opened are: food production, food & beverage service, house-keeping andbakery & patisserie.

Q9. The HunarZaika program is for

(A) Creating world class chefs to promote Indian food all over the world

(B) Skill development for creation and serving of high quality food in Trains and airplanes

(C) Upgrading hotels at important tourist places all over India.

(D)Upgrading the skills and hygiene standards of Street Food Vendors

Explanation: Swachh Bharat SwachhPakwan (HunarZaika): The street food vendors constitute a significant percentage of the hospitality service providers, are part of the Indian milieu through the ages and have a pan India presence. This program is aimed at upgrading the skills and hygiene standards of Street Food Vendors, so that they become a distinctive aspect of the Indian tourism. The Ministry of Tourism is partnering with the National Association of Street Vendors of India (NASVI) for the specific purpose of orientation, skill testing and certification of the vendors. The NASVI will either directly or through its city co-coordinators nominate vendors ingroups for training at one of the Institute of Hotel Management (IHMs) / Food Craft Institute(FCIs) authorized by the MoT to conduct such programmes. Since the vendors will also be sensitized, as part of the orientation, to personal, environmental and waste disposal hygiene, this MoTOs effort in partnership with NASVI will also visibly contribute to the Swachch BharatAbhiyan.

Q10. The ‘Access to Justice for Marginalized people’ project with UNDP support covered 7 states in the first phase. The project has also been approved for the period of five years (2012-2017) for which states/regions?

  1. Left-Wing Extremism affected states
  2. North-Eastern States
  3. Jammu and Kashmir
  4. States with higher percentage of marginalized population than the national average

Choose the correct answer from options below:

(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) Only 2 and 3

(C) Only 4 (D) All of the above

Explanation:  1st phase states were – Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, MP, UP, Odisha and Rajasthan. 2nd will focus efforts in 1-2 selected districts in the 8 states of Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, MP, UP, Odisha and Rajasthan. The scheme has also been extended for 5 years to NE and J&K.

Q11. Border Security Force’s (BSF) role in war time is

  1. Holding ground in assigned sectors
  2. Aggression against invading enemy army
  3. Guarding prisoners of war
  4. Anti-infiltration duties; prevent unauthorized entry or exit from territory of India
  5. Guide to army in border areas

Choose the correct answer from options below:

(A) Only 1, 2, 4 and 5

(B) Only 1, 3 and 5

(C) Only 1, 3, 4 and 5

(D)All of the above

Explanation: Anti – infiltration duties are peace time duties and not war time. Other war time duties are maintenance of law and order in enemy territory under army͛s control; assistance in control of refugees; performing special tasks connected with intelligence including raids; Aggression against enemy army is not allowed for BSF. Limited aggression against central police or irregular forces of enemy is allowed.

Q12. What are objectives of RashtriyaGokul Mission?

1) Development and conservation of indigenous breeds

2) Enhance milk production.

3) Distribute bulls for natural service.

Choose the correct answer from options below:

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C) 1 and 2 (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Mission will be implemented with the objectives to:

  1.  Development and conservation of indigenous breeds
  2.  Undertake breed improvement programme for indigenous cattle breed so as to improve the genetic makeup and increase the stock;
  3.  enhance milk production and productivity;
  4.  upgrade nondescript cattle using elite indigenous breeds like Gir, Sahiwal, Rathi, Deoni, Tharparkar, Red Sindhi and e) distribute disease free high genetic merit bulls for natural service.

Q13. IshanUday is

(A) Special Package for MSME Industries in the Northeast

(B)Special Scholarship Scheme for North East Region (NER)

(C)Package for Sunrise Industries

(D) Exposure and internship programme for students of Northeastern colleges

Explanation: The University Grants Commission (UGC) has launched  IshanUday͟ a Special Scholarship Scheme for North East Region (NER) from academic session 2014-15. Under the scheme ten thousand fresh scholarships are to be provided for general degree course, technical and professional courses including medical and Para-medical courses.

Q14. Dial. Gov is

(A) Mission to increase Tele-density in rural areas

(B)For information on eligibility of benefits under various social sector schemes

(C)Scheme for farmers to get information of markets

(D)Government helpline number for grievance redressal and lodging complaints

Explanation: It has been implemented as a common man͛s interface for providing comprehensive information on eligibility of benefits under various social sector schemes operational across the country. The information is provided through Web based portal, Call Centre and Interactive  Voice Response System (IVRS).

Q15. Which scheme / schemes is / are fully supported by the Centre?

  1. MGNREGA
  2. Swachha Bharat Abhiyaan
  3. National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)
  4. National Nutrition Mission

Choose the correct answer from options below:

(A) Only 1 and 4 (B)Only 1, 2 and 3

(C)Only 1 and 2 (D)All of the above

Explanation: Swachha Bharat Abhiyaan and National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) are implemented with changed sharing pattern by centre and the states.

Q16. Which of the following statement / s is / are correct with regards to National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG)?

  1. The area of operation of NMCG shall be Ganga River Basin including the states through which Ganga flows as well as National Capital territory of Delhi.
  2. The area of operation of NMCG may be extended to any extent as the National Ganga River

Basin Authority (NGRBA) may decide in states through which tributaries of Ganga flow.

Choose the correct answer from options below:

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D)Neither 1 and 2

Explanation: NMCG is the implementation wing of the NGRBA. NGRBA can extend area for effective abatement of pollution of the river.

Q17. Which of the following statement is/are correct with regards to Clean Ganga Fund?

  1. Domestic donors to the fund shall be eligible for tax benefit as applicable in the case of Swachh Bharat Kosh.
  2. The Fund will be managed by a trust headed by Minister for Water Resources.

Choose the correct answer from options below:

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D)Neither 1 and 2

Explanation: The Fund will be managed by a trust headed by Finance Minister. The Fund will have the objective of contributing to the national effort of cleaning of river Ganga.

Q18. In the light of Union Budget 2017, consider the following statements in respect of initiatives taken for FINANCIAL SECTOR?

  1. Foreign Investment Promotion Board to be re-introduced in 2017-18.
  2. A Computer Emergency Response Team for our Financial Sector (CERT-Fin) will be established
  3. In line with the ‘Indradhanush’ roadmap, ` 10,000 crores for recapitalization of Banks provided in 2017-18
  4. Lending target under PradhanMantri Mudra Yojana to be set at ` 2.44 lakh crores. Priority will be given to Dalits, Tribals, Backward Classes and Women.

Which of following statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 & 4 (B) 2, 3 & 4

(C) 1, 2 & 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q19. In the light of Union Budget 2017, consider the following statements in respect of initiatives taken for INFRASTRUCTURE

  1. Unmanned level crossings on Broad Gauge lines will be eliminated by 2020.
  2. By the end of 2017-18, high speed broadband connectivity on optical fibre will be available in more than 1,50,000 gram panchayats, under BharatNet.
  3. A DigiGaon initiative will be launched to provide tele-medicine, education and skills through digital technology
  4. A new and restructured Central scheme with a focus on export infrastructure, namely, Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme (TIES) will be launched in 2017-18

Which of following statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 & 4 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q20. In the light of Union Budget 2017, consider the following statements in respect of initiatives taken for YOUTH

  1. SWAYAM platform, leveraging IT, to be launched with at least 350 online courses. to enable students to virtually attend courses taught by the best faculty.
  2. National Testing Agency to be set-up as an autonomous and self-sustained premier testing organization to conduct all entrance examinations for higher education institutions.
  3. PradhanMantriKaushalKendras to be extended to more than 600 districts across the country.
  4. Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness for Livelihood Promotion programme (SANKALP) to be launched to provide market relevant training to 3.5 crore youth
  5. Next phase of Skill Strengthening for Industrial Value Enhancement (STRIVE) will also be launched.

Which of following statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (B) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(C) 2, 3, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q21. Which of following regarding timelines of action plans to tackle different diseases is incorrect? Disease Timeline for Elimination

(A) Kala-Azar and Filariasis 2017

(B) Leprosy 2018

(C) Measles 2020

(D) TB 2030

Q22. Consider the following regarding sources of Money as per Union Budget 2017-2018?

  1. Top sources of money are “Borrowings & other Liabilities” and “Corporation Tax”.
  2. Non tax revenue is more than tax revenue.

Which of following statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 (B) only 2

(C) Both 1 & 2 (D)Neither 1 and 2

Q23. Arrange the following subsidies in decreasing order of financial burden as per Union Budget 2017-18

  1. Food.
  2. Petroleum.
  3. Fertilizer.

Which of following statements are correct?

(A) 1, 3, 2 (B) 2, 3, 1

(C) 3, 1, 2 (D) 1, 2, 3

Q24. Consider the following regarding sources of Money as per Union Budget 2017-2018 ?

  1. Top sources of money are “Borrowings & other Liabilities” and “Corporation Tax”.
  2. Non tax revenue is more than tax revenue.

Which of following statements are correct?

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C)Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2

Q25. Which of following statements is presented along with Union Budget as per FRBM Act, 2003?

  1. Macro-Economic Framework Statement
  2. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
  3. Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement
  4. Medium-Term Expenditure Framework Statement

Which of following statements are correct?

(A) 1, 2 & 3 (B) 2 & 3

(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Q26. New estimates of labour migration in India show it was more pronounced for _________

(A) Females (B) Males

(C) Elderly workers (D) None of the above

Explanation: New estimates of labour migration in India have revealed that inter-state labor mobility is significantly higher than previous estimates. This was stated in the Economic Survey 2016-17. The study based on the analyses of new data sources and new methodologies also shows that the migration is accelerating and was particularly pronounced for females.

The data sources used for the study are the 2011 Census and railway passenger traffic flows of the Ministry of Railways and new methodologies including the Cohort-based Migration Metric (CMM) . The new Cohort-based Migration Metric (CMM) shows that inter-state labor mobility averaged 5-6.5 million people between 2001 and 2011. This is yielding an inter-state migrant population of about 60 million and an inter-district migration as high as 80 million. The first-ever estimates of internal work-related migration using railways data for the period 2011-2016 indicate an annual average flow of close to 9 million migrant people between the states. Both these estimates are significantly greater than the annual average flow of about 4 million suggested by successive Censuses and higher than previously estimated by any study. Migration for work and education is also accelerating.

There is also a doubling of the stock of inter-state out migrants to nearly 12 million in the 20- 29year old cohort alone. Higher growth and a multitude of economic opportunities could therefore have been the catalyst for such an acceleration of migration. Language does not seem to be a demonstrable barrier to the flow of people. Fourth, the patterns of flows of migrants found in this study are broadly consistent with what is expected – less affluent states see more out migration migrating out while the most affluent states are the largest recipients of migrants. Policy actions to sustain and maximize the benefits of migration include:

Ensuring portability of food security benefits, Providing healthcare and a basic social security framework for migrants – potentially through an inter-state self-registration process. Redistributive Resource Transfer and the Economic Survey. Economic Survey also calculates Redistributive Resource Transfers͛ (RRT) from the Centre (between 1994 and 2015) and value of natural resources for Indian States (over 1980 and 2014). It correlates these with several economic outcomes and an index of governance. Redistributive Resource Transfer or RRT to a state (from the Centre) is defined as gross devolution to the state adjusted for the respective state͛s share in aggregate Gross Domestic Product(GDP).

The top 10 recipients are:

Sikkim,Arunachal Pradesh,Mizoram,Nagaland,Manipur,MeghalayaTripura,Jammu and Kashmir,Himachal Pradesh,Assam.

Q27. Article 293 (3) of the Constitution is tool in the hands of centre to check fiscal deterioration on part of states. What is Article 293(3)?

(A) States must take consent of the Centre for additional borrowing

(B) States must reduce their fiscal expenditure on centre’s instructions

(C) Centre may introduce financial emergency in state to check deteriorating financial situation

(D) Centre may raise interest rates on loans given to states

Q28. According to economic survey, which of following approaches can be used for gradual introduction of UBI in India?

  1. Offering UBI as a choice to beneficiaries of existing programs
  2. Offering UBI to Women
  3. Introduction of UBI for certain vulnerable groups like widows, pregnant women, old etc.
  4. Introduce UBI in urban areas first

Identify the correct statements

(A) 1 & 2 only (B) 2 & 3 only

(C) All are correct (D) None are correct

Q29. As per Economic survey, what is twin balance sheet problem?

(A) Overleveraged companies and bad-loan-encumbered banks

(B) Underleveraged companies and bad-loan-encumbered banks

(C) Underleveraged government and bad-loan-encumbered banks

(D) Overleveraged economy and bad-loan-encumbered banks

Explanation:  The Economic Survey of 2015-16 acknowledges that one of the critical challenges confronting the Indian economy is ͚the twin balance sheet͛ problem. The balance sheets of both public sector banks (PSBs) and some corporate houses are in terrible shape and it has been seen as a major obstacle to investment and reviving growth. The problems faced by the Public Sector Banks are linked directly to that of the corporate sector. During the boom years, some companies borrowed a lot of money from banks to invest in infrastructure and commodity- related businesses, such as steel, power, infrastructure etc.

But now, due to slump in both these sectors, the corporate profits have hit new lows. With low profits, the corporates are not able to repay their loans and their debts are rising at an alarming level. They have no other option other than to cut back investments.

Let us understand some basic terms to appreciate the full import of the troubles faced by the economy.

What are Non-Performing Assets?

The NPAs are assets that stop generating income for a bank. Bank͛s assets mostly comprise of loans and when these loans are on the verge of default (that is, about to go bad), they are classified as NPA.

In India, a loan is classified as NPA, if the interest or any installment remains unpaid for a period of more than 90 days. The gross NPAs in India were 5.1 % of total loans advanced by the public sector banks as of September 2015 and the stressed assets were 11% of total loans advanced by them.

What are stressed assets?

Stressed assets are NPAs plus restructured assets. Restructured loans are loans that have been converted to equity under the corporate debt restructuring scheme. The high amount of NPAs in banks have hit their profitability as well, as banks have to make more provisioning. Banks have to set aside large funds as provisions to take care of the potential losses arising out of the loans that might go bad. NPAs are the reason why most banks reported losses in the last quarter. Banks͛ NPAs have been growing for a while now. It not only affects the balance sheet and profitability of banks but also limits credit availability to the corporate sector. This limited credit availability leads to further decline in private investment, The Union budget of 2016 has allocated Rs 25000 crore towards recapitalisation of Public Sector banks. This is a necessary step to infuse capital into the Public Sector Banks. RBI has set March 2017 as the deadline for banks to clean up their balance sheets and strengthen their assets and has taken several measures to address the problem.

Q30. Which of following are reasons for India’s twin balance sheet problem?

  1. Difficulty in obtaining land and environmental clearances
  2. Dampening impact of Global financial crisis
  3. Increase in the interest rates by RBI to curb inflation

Identify the correct statements

(A) 1 & 2 only (B) 2 & 3 only

(C) All are correct (D) None are correct

Q31. Consider the following statements regarding the convergence patterns between different Indian states.

  1. On the financial front, though there has been income convergence but consumption divergence.
  2. On the health front, there has been convergence across both fronts i.e. life expectancy at birth and infant mortality rate.

Identify the correct statements

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2

Explanation: On the financial front, there has been divergence on both income and convergence

Q32. Consider the following statements with respect to Redistributive resource transfers (RRT) curse?

  1. It means Higher the RRT, the slower is growth, and the smaller is the share of manufacturing in GSDP. Thus, the lower are the tax revenues and quality of governance.
  2. Evidence suggests that there might be RRT curse in India.

Identify the correct statements

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2

Explanation: What is RRT?

RRT to a state is defined as gross devolution3 to the state adjusted for the respective state͛s share in aggregate gross domestic product. Thus RRT is not identical to gross devolution. The higher the RRT means The slower is growth of state. The smaller is the share of manufacturing in GSDP. The lower is own tax revenues.

The economic survey pointed out that there is no evidence of a positive relationship between these transfer and economic outcome including per capita consumption, GSDP growth, institutional quality.

Why resource abundance state grow less rapidly than resource less state?

It is due to resource curse which is attributed due to following:

First, the exploitation of natural resources generates rents, which lead to rapacious rent- seeking (the voracity effect) and increased corruption. Second, natural resource ownership exposes countries to commodity price volatility, which can destabilize GDP growth. Finally, natural resource ownership – like foreign aid — makes countries susceptible to ͞Dutch disease͟. Way ahead for development

Infrastructure and Connectivity:

͞RRT curse͟ and ͞natural resource curse͟, could be a result of poor connectivity in particular and poor infrastructure – physical, financial, and digital in general.

This is clearly true of the north-east but also true of many parts of resource-rich India. Enhancing connectivity – financial and physical – on a war footing (as the government has attempted for financial inclusion with the PradhanMantri Jan DhanYojana (PMJDY), expediting the optical fibre network, etc will have a moderating effect.

Redistributive Resource Transfers In a federal system the Centre must play a redistributive role: it will always have to redirect resources to under-developed states. Rather, the Centre will need to find ways of ensuring that the resources it redistributes are used more productively.

Redirecting flows to households

One possibility would be to redirect a certain portion of RRT and channel the resources directly to households as part of a Universal Basic Income (UBI) scheme. Conditioning transfers on fiscal performance Finance Commissions could revert to the practice of the 13th FC of conditioning transfers on the tax effort of states .This will offset the fiscal bias. Making governance- contingent transfers To encourage better governance and sound institutional practices, the fund transfer mechanism could explicitly include a few monitorable institutional indicators as criteria for receiving transfers.

Redistributive Resource Transfers maybe defined as the architecture of redistributive resource flows from the Centre to the States as a part of Devolution of Funds, which play a key role in bridging inter-States inequality and as aid to under-developed states over-and-above their contribution to GDP.

The key differences between RRT and Foreign Aid are:

1.Foreign Aid adds to the National Disposable Income of the economy. Therefore there is a risk of economic dependence to the foreign nation. There is also possibility of economic collapse in case of sudden changes in the Aid structure and foreign relations, impacting sovereignty. Eg.- Economic collapse in Madagascar in 2009 after withdrawal of UK Foreign Aid due to political turmoil.

~RRTs are national redistributions and therefore donot augment the National Disposable Income. This allows for a more controlled economic structure.

  1. Foreign Aid invariably results in a Donor-Recipient relationship. Since institutional development of tax base and economic management are more critical than simple resource availability, such a relationship may be regressive. Aid dependent nations have been shown to have low incentive to develop a domestic revenue regime. ~RRTs on the other hand, are part of a national structure and may be controlled by the Centre to incentivize and spur development in States. For example, – the mandate of 13th Finance Commission that conditioned RRT aids on the tax efforts of respective States.

Therefore, we may conclude that RRTs are an element of Welfare nature of Indian polity that commits itself to ensuring equitable development across states by providing fiscal stimulus to less developed states as an incentive to develop a robust revenue regime. However, as per Economic Survey 2017, the ills of foreign aid may manifest in RRT structure as well unless carefully monitored from the Centre.

Q33. Which of following can be reason for strong internal trade in India?

  1. Area based exemptions
  2. Indirect Tax Distortions
  3. Constitutional provisions promoting free trade

Identify the correct statements

(A) 1 & 2 only (B) 2 & 3 only

(C) 1 & 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Q34. Which of following are short term consequences of Demonetization move of government?

  1. Decline in Interest rates
  2. Increase in financial savings
  3. Increase in Public sector wealth
  4. Digitalization of economy
  5. Job losses

Identify the correct statements

(A) 1, 2, 4 & 5 only (B) 2, 3 & 4 only

(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (D)1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation: As the debate around Demonetisation rages on in the country, the economists have expressed varied opinions on this unprecedented reform. Here is the long term and short term impact of government’s move to make India a cashless economy.

Q35. Which of following are likely long term consequences of demonetisation move of government?

  1. Interest rates could fall further.
  2. Reduction in stock of black money
  3. Continuation of digital revolution
  4. Increase in financial savings to the extent cash deposit ratio falls permanently
  5. Stronger economy with least corruption

Identify the correct statements

(A) 1,2,3& 5 only (B) 1,3,4 & 5 only

(C) 1, 2, 4 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Q36. India’s INDC (Intended Nationally Determined Contributions) under Paris agreement are:

  1. Lower the emissions intensity of GDP by 33 to 35 per cent by 2030 from 2005 levels.
  2. To increase the share of non-fossil fuels based power generation capacity to 60 per cent of installed electric power capacity by 2030.
  3. To create an additional (cumulative) carbon sink of 2.5–3 Gt CO2e through additional forest and tree cover by 2030.

Identify the correct statements

(A) 1 & 3 only (B) 2 & 3 only

(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: To increase the share of non-fossil fuels based power generation capacity to 40 per cent of installed electric power capacity by 2030.

Q37. Consider the following w.r.t Inflation scenario in India:

  1. The average CPI inflation declined in 2015-16 from 2014-15.
  2. Headline Inflation is measured by CPI in India
  3. The average WPI became negative in 2015-16
  4. Pulses continued to be the major contributor of food inflation
  5. Core inflation excludes food and fuel group

Identify the correct statements

(A) 1, 2 and 4 (B) 1, 2, 3 & 4 only

(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (D) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Q38. Arrange the following countries in decreasing order of exports made by India to them (2016-17 till Nov.):

  1. USA
  2. UAE
  3. Hongkong

(A) 1 2 3 (B) 2 3 1

(C) 2 1 3 (D)1 3 2

Q39. Arrange the following countries in decreasing order of imports by India from them (2016-17 till Nov.):

  1. UAE
  2. China
  3. USA

(A) 1 2 3 (B) 2 3 1

(C) 2 1 3 (D) 1 3 2

Q40. Apart from Union Budget, Which of following other documents are presented in Parliament as part of Union Budget?

  1. Macro-Economic Framework Statement
  2. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
  3. Medium Term Fiscal Policy Statement
  4. Medium Term Expenditure Framework Statement

Which of following statements are correct?

(A) 1 & 3 (B) 2 & 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q41. Economic Survey 2016-2017 is the first to use __________.

(A) Big Data (B) Analytics

(C) Econometrics (D) Statistics

Explanation: For the first time, the Economic Survey has used Big Data Analysis to shed new light on the flow of goods and people within India.  Survey produces first estimate of the flow of goods across states within India, based on analyzing transactions level data provided by the Goods and Services Tax Network (GSTN), Survey furnishes exciting new evidence on the flows of migrants within India. This is based on detailed origin-destination passenger data provided by the Ministry of Railways and on a new methodology for analysing the Census data.

This year͛s Economic Survey does not carry the usual statistical tables on the economy͛s performance. The survey seems to have compensated this by the use of Big Data and intensive data-mining of multiple datasets. The survey has used individual tax filings administered by the Goods and Service Tax Network to estimate state-level (both inter and intra) trade.

Railway station-wise unreserved passenger traffic data provided by the Indian Railways has been used to arrive at estimates of work-related migration. Satellite imagery has been used to calculate built-up area and estimate potential property tax collections (and hence losses being incurred).

Machine generated large scale data sets have been used more intensively. NSSO statistics has been used to generate insights on spatial concentration of poverty and welfare beneficiaries. Official statistical machinery has moved past surveys to include administrative data. The new approach towards using diverse datasets is definitely an important first step towards better decision-making. Marrying satellite imagery about properties data with something like income tax data for India͛s top 50 cities and house-size census data can generate rich insights about Indian cities.

Q42. Under which Act, Prime Minister, on 8th of Nov2016, declared that the existing Rs. 500 and Rs. 1000 notes will no more be a legal tender?

(A) RBI Act 1934

(B) Banking regulation Act 1949

(C) Payment and Settlement Systems Act 2007

(D) Does not require any statutory backing

Explanation: As per the RBI Act 1934, Section 26, “on recommendation of the Central Board the CentralGovernment may, by notification in the Gazette of India, declare that, with effect from such date as may be specified in the notification, any series of bank notes of any denomination shall cease to be legal tender”.Consider the following statements:

Q43. Consider the following statements:

(i) Bank notes are legal tenders

(ii) Bank notes are unlimited legal tenders

(iii) Bank notes are guaranteed by the Central Government

(iv) Bank notes are guaranteed by the RBI

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) (i) & (iii) only (B) (i) & (iv) only

(C) (i), (ii) & (iii) only (D) (ii) & (iv) only

Explanation: A country or its citizens may use many modes of exchange in their daily lives. History tells us that ancient humans used salt and spices as currency. But Legal tender is the money that is recognized by the law of the land, as valid for payment of debt. It must be accepted for discharge of debt. The RBI Act of 1934, which gives the central bank the sole right to issue bank/ states that Legal tender can be limited or unlimited in character. In India, coins function as limited legal tender. Therefore, 50 paise coins can be offered as legal tender for dues up to Rs.10 and smaller coins for dues up to Re1.Currency notes are unlimited legal tender and can be offered as payment for dues of any size. As per the RBI Act 1934, all bank notes are guaranteed by the Central Government.

Q44. Consider the following statements regarding “Exchange Traded Funds (ETF)”:

(i) ETFs are traded like stocks and can be bought and sold throughout the day

(ii) ETFs can be used as a vehicle for disinvestment

(iii) ETFs offer the benefit of diversification of risks

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) (i) only           (B) (i) & (ii) only

(C) (ii) & (iii) only (D) All of the above

Explanation: The concept of a mutual fund is that various investors/individuals put their money in a fund and this fund is used to purchase shares/bonds of various companies thus diversifying the risk of the investors. If the share price or bond price of the companies increase then the value of the fund also increases and investors gain. If some individual wants to put money into the mutual fund then it can be done only once after the market has closed for that given day. Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) are almost similar to that of mutual funds but they differ in the sense that ETFs are traded on the stock exchange throughout the day. So if any investor wants to purchase an ETF, they can always purchase it from the stock exchange/market throughout the day like the shares of any company. The Central government has announced in the budget that they will be creating an ETF of various central public sector companies so that to attract investors to purchase ETFs, and through which the disinvestment can be done.

Q45. Headcount ratio is defined as:

(A) Ratio of population below the poverty line to above the poverty line.

(B) Ratio of population above the poverty line to below the poverty line.

(C) Proportion of population that lives below the poverty line.

(D) Proportion of population that lives above the poverty line.

Explanation: Headcount ratio is the proportion of population that lives below the poverty line. Hence as per Rangarajan estimate, the poverty headcount ratio in 2011-12 was 29.5%.

Q46. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Primary Agriculture Credit Societies

(PACS):

(i) It operates at the village level

(ii) It provides short term credit

(iii) It provides direct credit to small and marginal farmers

(iv) Regulated by RBI.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) (i) & (ii) only (B) (ii) & (iii) only

(C) (i), (ii) & (iii) only (D) All of the above

Explanation: Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) The rural co-operative credit system in India is primarily mandated to ensure flow of credit to the agriculture sector. It comprises short-term and long-term co-operative credit structures. The short-term co-operative credit structure operates with a three-tier system – Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) at the village level, Central Cooperative Banks (CCBs) at the district level and State Cooperative Banks (StCBs) at the State level.

A PACS is organized at the grass roots level of a village or a group of small villages. It is this basic unit which deals directly with the rural (agricultural) borrowers, gives those loans and collects repayments of loans given.

PACS are outside the purview of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 and hence not regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. SCBs/DCCBs are registered under the provisions of State Cooperative Societies Act of the State concerned and are regulated by the Reserve Bank.

Powers have been delegated to National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development (NABARD) under Sec 35 A of the Banking Regulation Act to conduct inspection of State and Central Cooperative Banks.The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 provides for

Q47. The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016 provides for

  1. Prohibition of employment of children below 14 years in all occupations or processes except where child helps his family.
  2. Prohibition of employment of adolescents in hazardous occupations
  3. Resettlement and rehabilitation of children found in state of bonded labour

Select the correct answer using the codes below

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only

(C)) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation – The Bill seeks to amend the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 to widen the scope of the law against child labour and stricter punishments for violations.

Statement 2: It provides for addition of a new category of persons called ͞adolescent͟. They are person between 14 and 18 years of age. Their labour in hazardous industries is prohibited. Government may confer powers on a District Magistrate (DM) to ensure that the provisions of the law are properly carried out and implemented. It also empowers the government to make periodic inspection of places at which employment of children and adolescents are prohibited.

Statement 3: There is no R&R provision in the bill presently. This matter is generally dealt by various schemes and policies, such as National Child Policy and Bonded Labour rehabilitation scheme (covered in previous tests).

Q48. Consider the following about Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) adopted from 2015.

  1. It will apply to all UN member states and not just those in the developing world.
  2. SDGs consist of more goals but lesser number of targets as compared to MDGs.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1: It will apply to all UN member states and not just those in the developing world. In this way, we hope they will become as ͞universal͟ as the Universal Declaration of Human Rights—a vital element of the civic armoury in the fight for fairness.

Statement 2: SDGs consist of 17 goals and 169 targets in contrast to 8 goals and 18 targets in MDGs set to expire in 2015. So, 2 is incorrect. Goals are related to ending poverty; sustainable development; universal enrolment; improving implementation etc. These goals are similar to MDGs, while others like reducing inequality are new to SDGs. Instead of top-down approach in implementation of SDGs, bottom-up approach is needed for the success of SDGs. You can see all goals under the link in Q Source.

Q49. Consider the following about ‘Climate Vulnerable Forum (CVF).

  1. It is a group of all island nations that are threatened with sea level rise.
  2. The group opposes international mechanisms on climate change projects as it views them as non-participatory and exploitative.

Which of the above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) None

Explanation: The CVF is also known as Vulnerable Twenty͛ (V20) group. Finance Ministers of the ͚Vulnerable Twenty͛ (V20) representing close to 700 million people from 20 countries around the globe, hold their inaugural meeting during the World Bank/International Monetary Fund Annual Meetings last year. So, 1 is incorrect.

The new group called for a significant mobilization of public and private finance for climate action at the international, regional and domestic level ahead of the COP21 talks in Paris. The V20 was created to share and scale up innovative approaches to climate finance developed by those countries most affected by climate change. So, 2 is clearly incorrect.

Q50. “Export competition” has been a long standing issue in the WTO’s negotiations. It has been one of the major outcomes of the Nairobi package. It is mainly related to

(A) Agricultural export subsidies and export credits

(B) Preferential rules of origin for LDCs

(C) Temporary export tariff hikes to contain BoP crises

(D) Trade Facilitation agreement (TFA)

Explanation:While export subsidies for industrial products have been prohibited, such subsidies in agricultural products were only subject to limited disciplines. So, the elimination of all forms of agricultural export subsidies constituted one of the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals launched in 2015. The proliferation of export subsidies in the years leading up to the Uruguay Round was one of the key issues that were addressed in these negotiations and they have remained a heated topic in recent years in the WTO So, the decision at the recent Nairobi conference of WTO to fully eliminate any form of agricultural export subsidies is an historic decision and constitutes a significant step in the reform of agricultural trade. It is  particularly meaningful for farmers in poor countries who cannot afford to compete with rich countries which artificially boost their exports through subsidization.

Q51. Consider the following with reference to the National Defence Fund (NDF).

  1. It is contributed jointly by the Central government and state governments.
  2. It is used for the modernization of border infrastructure in sensitive regions.
  3. It is housed with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only

(C) 3 only (D) None of the above

Explanation: Justification: The National Defence Fund was set up to take charge of voluntary donations in cash and kind received for promotion of the national defence effort, and to decide on their utilization.

Statement 1: The fund is entirely dependent on voluntary contributions from the public and does not get any budgetary support. The fund accepts online contributions.

Statement 2: The Fund is used for the welfare of the members of the Armed Forces (including Para Military Forces) and their dependents.

Statement 3: The Fund is administered by an Executive Committee, with PM as Chairperson, and Defence, Finance and Home Ministers as Members. Finance Minister is the Treasurer of the Fund and the Joint Secretary, PMO dealing with the subject is Secretary of the Executive Committee. Accounts of the Fund are kept with the Reserve Bank of India

Q52. Consider the following important legal provisions of Indian Penal Code (IPC) often seen in news. Match them correctly with their mandate.

  1. Section 499A of IPC A. Seditious writing or speech
  2. Section 124A of IPC B. Defamation
  3. Section 295 of IPC C. Outraging Communal sentiments

Select the correct match from the codes below.

(A) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (B) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C

(C) 1-C, 2-C, 3-B (D) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A

Explanation: Section 295 of Indian Penal Code incriminates any act that outrages the religious feelings or sentiments of others.

Section 124A criminalizes seditious acts, speech or writings.

Section 499A criminalizes defamation.

Section 66A (now repealed) criminalized a speech on electronic medium that has the potential to hurt community sentiments.

These have been often seen in news due to many cases like Miss Ramya; JNSU President; AsimTrivedi etc.

Q53. The Geostationary Operational Environmental Satellite-R (GOES-R) launched by NASA will be instrumental in

  1. Issuing timely space weather alerts
  2. Augmenting satellite-based search and rescue network

Which of the above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) None

Explanation:

Statement 1: The satellite will boost the US͛s weather observation capabilities, leading to more accurate and timely forecasts, watches and warnings. It is also crucial for the World in identifying space and weather information in a substantially refined and modified format.

GOES-R is also first satellite to carry a lightning mapper instrument to geostationary orbit. It will photograph lightning activity throughout Western Hemisphere about 200 times every second. It will monitor the sun and relay crucial information to forecasters so they can issue space weather alerts and warnings.

Statement 2: In all, data from GOES-R will result in new or improved meteorological, solar and space weather products. It also will be part of the Search and Rescue Satellite Aided Tracking (SARSAT) System, an international satellite-based search and rescue network operated by NOAA.

Q54. Digital Single Market is a planned sector of ______

(A) European Union

(B) G-5

(C) SAARC

(D) BRICS

Explanation: Digital Single Market is a planned sector of the European Single Market that covers digital marketing, E-commerce and telecommunication. It was announced in May 2015 by the Juncker Commission

Q55. The salient features of the new Foreign Trade Policy (FTP) 2015-2020 is\are

  1. Prioritization of sectors having domestic manufacturing capabilities and potential export demand
  2. Promotion of Special Economic Zones (SEZs) to boost exports
  3. Paperless working to facilitate ease of doing business in India

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: It was announced with a vision to making India a significant participant in world trade by 2020 and to enable the country to assume a leadership position in the international trade discourse.

To increase India͛s exports of merchandise and services from USS 465.9 billIon in 2013-14 to USS 900 billion by 2019-20 and to raise India͛s share in world exports from 2 per cent to 3.5 per cent during this period.

A new scheme, the Merchandise Exports from India Scheme (MEIS) aimed at me simplification of the incentive structure and replacing multiple schemes is in place. A new scheme, the Services Exports from India Scheme (SE IS) with expanded scope Is In place which will benefit all ͚service providers located in India͛ instead of only ͚Indian service providers.

Allowing transferability and eater flexibility in using ͚duty credit scrips͛ which exporters will get under MEIS and SEIS.

Envisages a move towards paperless working in a 24×7 environment to facilitate the ease of doing business in.

Other sectors identified with great export potential include engineering, leather, textiles, medical devices, natural resource based items, gems and jewellery, Agri  products and defence equipment.

Emphasis on the need to increase India͛s participation in global supply chains.Adoption of the ͚whole-of-government͛ approach as a significant step towards better coordination with state governments/other departments.

Indication of the revival or the interest subvention scheme for exports from identified sectors for a period of three years, though sectoral coverage and rate of interest subvention are not indicated.

Q56. With reference to the FAME India Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. It aims to support the hybrid/electric vehicles market development and its manufacturing ecosystem.
  2. It is a part of the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan.
  3. Only 4 wheeler passenger vehicles are covered under the scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Government of India launched the National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 in 2013. It aims to achieve national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles in the country. Government launched the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles (FAME India) under NEMMP 2020 in the Union Budget for 2015-16 with an initial outlay of Rs. 75 Cr with the objective to support hybrid/electric vehicles market development  and Manufacturing eco-system. The scheme has 4 focus areas i.e. Technology development, Demand Creation, Pilot Projects and Charging Infrastructure. Hence, statements 1 and 2 are correct. The FAME India Scheme is aimed at incentivising all vehicle segments i.e. 2 Wheeler, 3 Wheeler  Auto, Passenger 4 Wheeler Vehicle, Light Commercial Vehicles and Buses. Hence, statement 3 is not correct. The scheme covers Hybrid & Electric technologies like Mild Hybrid, Strong Hybrid, Plug in Hybrid & Battery Electric Vehicles. Recently, the government has withdrawn incentives given to mild hybrid vehicles under FAME India.

Q57. SENSAGRI, recently seen in news, is a:

(A) Project to develop indigenous prototype for drone based crop and soil health monitoring system.

(B) Standard set by Indian Agricultural Research Institute for agriculture crop produce in India.

(C) Figure indicating the relative prices of shares on the Bombay Stock Exchange of agriculture related firms.

(D) Project for development of effective structural health monitoring methods.

Explanation:The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) through the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) has formulated a collaborative research project entitled ͞SENSAGRI: SENsor based Smart AGRIculture͟ involving six partner Institutes (Agriculture & IT) to be funded by Information Technology Research Academy (ITRA), Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DEITY), Ministry of Communication and Information Technology (MCIT), Govt. of India and ICAR.

The major objective is to develop indigenous prototype for drone based crop and soil health monitoring system using hyperspectral remote sensing (HRS) sensors. This technology could also be integrated with satellite-based technologies for large scale applications.

Drone technology based unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) has ability for smooth scouting over farm fields, gathering precise information and transmitting the data on real time basis.

This capability could be used for the benefit of farming sector at regional/local scale for assessing land and crop health; extent, type and severity of damage besides issuing forewarning, post-event management and settlement of compensation under crop insurance schemes.

Q58. Synlight, recently seen in news, is

(A) A Solar Power tree developed by Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR).

(B) A remote sensing device that uses light in the form of pulsed laser to measure distances to the Earth, developed by NASA.

(C) The world’s largest artificial sun developed by German Aerospace Centre.

(D) A light synchronization device to modulate the frequency of light, developed by Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay.

Explanation: The world͛s largest artificial sun, called Synlight, by the German Aerospace Centre (DLR) was switched on the 23rd of March 2017, with the intention of innovating the  production of renewable energy.

Synlight is housed in a three-storey building in Jülich, Germany and is composed of 149 Xenon short-arc lamps which can produce a scorching heat of up to 3,000 degrees Celsius.

Q59. In the context of Banking, which of the following best describes haircut?

(A) It is the difference between the loan amount and the actual value of the asset used as collateral.

(B) It is the reserve requirement that the commercial banks are required to maintain in the form of gold and government approved securities.

(C) It is a process whereby all new restructured loans are classified as bad loans.

(D) It is the downsizing of the banking staff by restructuring the processes and reducing the employees.

Explanation: To deal with mounting bad loans afflicting banks, the government is likely to come out with a set of measures for faster resolution of non-performing assets. The policy may contain the processes relating to haircut and one-time settlement to be carried out by banks for faster resolution of high-value cases, adding that the big-loan defaults constitute about 70% of the total non-performing assets.

A haircut is the difference between the loan amount and the actual value of the asset used as collateral. It reflects the lender’s perception of the risk of fall in the value of assets. But in the context of loan recoveries, it is the difference between the actual dues from a borrower and the amount he settles with the bank.

This is done because the lender gets at least some amount back instead of not getting any money at all.

When collateral is being pledged, the degree of the haircut is determined by amount of associated risk to the lender. These risks include any variables that may affect the value of the collateral in the event that the lender has to sell the security due to a default by the borrower. Variables that may influence that amount of a haircut include price, credit and liquidity risks of the collateral.

Q60. Parliamentary forums serve as platforms for ministers and officials to discuss critical issues. With respect to this, consider the following statements:

  1. They are mentioned in the Rules of Conducting Business of both houses of parliament.
  2. The Speaker of the LokSabha is the ex-officio President of all the forums.
  3. The duration of the members of the forum is co-terminus with their membership in the respective Houses.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Statement 1 is not correct : It is not mentioned in the Rules of conducting Business of the Parliament. Parliamentary Forums provide a platform to the members to have interactions with ministers, sensitise members about key areas and prepare data-base. Each Forum consists of not more than 31 members (excluding the President and ex-officio Vice Presidents) out of whom not more than 21 are from the LokSabha and not  more than 10 are from the RajyaSabha. Members (other than the President and Vice-Presidents) of these forums are nominated by the Speaker/Chairman from amongst the leaders of various political parties/groups or their nominees, who have special knowledge/keen interest in the subject.

Statement 2 is not correct :The Speaker of LokSabha is the President of all the Forums except the Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health wherein the Chairman of RajyaSabha is the President and the Speaker is the Co-President. The Deputy Chairman of RajyaSabha, the Deputy Speaker of LokSabha, the concerned Ministers and the Chairmen of Departmentally-Related Standing Committees are the ex-officio Vice-Presidents of the respective Forums.

Statement 3 is correct : The duration of the office of members of the forum is co-terminus with their membership in the respective Houses. A member may also resign from the forum by writing to the Speaker/Chairman.

Q61. With reference to Unstructured Supplementary Service Data (USSD), consider the following statements:

  1. It is a session based service where texts and interactions are not stored on the mobile phone.
  2. A mobile phone must have an active internet connection for using USSD based services.
  3. It can be used to improve financial inclusion in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: USSD is a session-based service which runs as a real-time open session between the application and the end-user. While SMS is a store and forward technology, USSD texts and interactions are not stored on the mobile phone. SMS content remains stored in the mobile phone memory. Additionally, USSD can have up to 182 characters, while SMS is limited to 160 characters.

Statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct: This service allows mobile banking transactions using basic feature mobile phone, there is no need to have mobile internet data facility for using USSD based mobile banking. It is envisioned to provide financial deepening and inclusion of under banked society in the mainstream banking services. *99# service has been launched to take the banking services to every common man across the country. Key services offered under *99# service include, interbank account to account fund transfer, balance enquiry, mini statement besides host of other services.

Q62. Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct?

  1. GoI launched the ‘.in’ domain in Devanagari script.
  2. It covers 22 languages mentioned in the Constitution of India.

(A)Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2

Explanation: GoI launched the ͚.bharat͛ domain in Devanagari script covering 8 languages including Hindi, Konkani and Marathi.

Q63. Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct?

  1. An action Plan is drawn up for Swachh Bharat Mission to become reality by 2019, 125th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.
  2. The action plan calls for an Open Defecation Free (ODF) India in 3 years time.
  3. Priority is being given to build toilets for boys and girls in all schools of the country and this is envisaged to be completed in one year.

Choose the correct answer from following choices:

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 1 and 2

(C) Only 3 (D) None of the above

Explanation: Swachh Bharat is to be a reality by 2019, which is 150th anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. ODF target is in 5 years.

Q64. In SaansadAdarsh Gram Yojana, a MP takes up a village for development. In this scheme, what award categories have been decided?

1.Best Adarsh Grams.

  1. Best District Collectors
  2. Best MPs
  3. Best Practices

Choose the correct answer from below options:

(A) Only 1 and 3 (B) Only 1, 2 and 4

(C) Only 1, 3 and 4 (D)All of the above

Explanation: The four award categories are – Best Adarsh Grams, Best District Collectors, Best Practices, and Best Charge Officers.

Q65. Five schemes have been launched under Pandit Deendayal Upadhyay Shramev Jayate Karya karam. Which of the following come under those?

  1. Revamped RashtriyaSwasthyaBimaYojana.
  2. Apprentice ProtsahanYojana
  3. Universal Account Number Scheme
  4. Random Inspection Scheme

Choose the correct answer from the below options:

(A) Only 1 and 2 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) All of the above

Explanation: The five schemes are – Revamped Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana, Apprentice Protsahan Yojana, Universal Account Number Scheme, Random Inspection Scheme and Shram Suvidha PortalWhich of the following are among the 9 pillars of the Digital India Program?

Q66. Which of the following are among the 9 pillars of the Digital India Program?

  1. Broadband Highways
  2. e-Governance
  3. IT sector Jobs
  4. Early Harvest Programmes

Choose the correct answer from the below options:

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3 (B) Only 2 and 3

(C) Only 4 (D)All of the above

Explanation: The nine pillars are Broadband Highways, Universal Access to Mobile Connectivity, Public Internet Access Programme, e-Governance – Reforming Government through Technology, e- Kranti (NeGP 2.0) – Electronic delivery of services, Information for All, Electronics Manufacturing – Target NET ZERO Imports, IT for Jobs, Early Harvest Programmes.

Q67. Wildlife Institute of India has proposed a modified classification which divides the country into how many biogeographic regions?

(A) 10 (B) 6

(C) 4 (D) 5

Explanation: They are – Trans-Himalayan; Himalayan; Indian Desert; Semi-Arid; Western Ghats; Deccan Peninsula; Gangetic Plain; North East India; Islands; and Coasts.

Q68. India is divided into how many river basins/group of river basins?

(A) 20 (B) 8

(C) 12 (D) 36

Explanation: Out of those 20, 12 are major river basins and 8 are composite river basins.

Q69. Which of the following ministry/ministries is/are working on the Action Plan for ‘NamamiGange’?

  1. Ministry of Shipping
  2. Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation
  3. Ministry of Tourism
  4. Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change
  5. Ministry of Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation

Choose the correct answer from the below options:

(A) Only 2 and 5 (B)Only 2, 4 and 5

(C)Only 2 (D)All of the above

Explanation: The entire above plus Ministry of Urban Development and Ministry of Rural development

Q70. Which of the following statement(s) is / are correct with regards to initiatives under NamamiGange?

  1. NirmalDhara – includes restoration and conservation of wetlands, efficient irrigation methods and rational agricultural practices.
  2. AviralDhara – includes sewage treatment and managing industrial discharge.

Choose the correct answer from the below options:

(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 and 2

Explanation: NirmalDhara takes up issue of sewage and AviralDhara focuses on restoration and conservation of wetlands, efficient irrigation methods and rational agricultural practices. There will also be promotion of Shipping and Tourism.

Q71. The National Industrial Corridor Development & Implementation Trust (NICDIT), which will implement all the proposed industrial corridors will be under the administrative control of

(A) Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP)

(B) Department of Economic Affairs (DEA), Ministry of Finance

(C) Ministry of Heavy Industries

(D) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways

Explanation: The Union Government has approved the re-designation of the Delhi-Mumbai Industrial Corridor Project Implementation Trust Fund (DMICPTF) as National Industrial Corridor Development & Implementation Trust (NICDIT). NICDIT will be the apex body to oversee integrated development of all industrial corridors across the country. NICDIT will function under the administrative control of Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) i.e. Ministry of Commerce & Industry.

It will consist of Minister of Commerce & Industry, Minister of Railways, Minister of Road Transport & Highways, Minister of Shipping, Vice-Chairman of NITI Aayog and Chief Ministers of states concerned as members. NICDIT will implement all the five proposed industrial corridors, together covering 15 States.

Q72. Which of the following modes of cashless transactions have been developed by National Payment Corporation of India?

  1. RuPay Card
  2. Immediate Payment Service (IMPS)
  3. BHIM App
  4. Real Time Gross settlement (RTGS)

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: National Payment Corporation of India has developed RuPay Card, IMPS and BHIM App as e-payment services. RTGS is not facilitated by NPCI. In RTGS, the settlements of funds transfer happen through RBI.

Q73. What is “Long March-3B”, recently in the news?

(A) Satellite launch rocket developed by China.

(B) World’s fastest bullet Train developed by Japan.

(C) Recently constructed underground tunnel in Alps Mountains.

(D) World’s first supersonic drone developed by USA.

Explanation: Long March 3B is a Chinese orbital carrier rocket. It is mainly used to place communications satellites into geosynchronous orbits.

China recently launched the first satellite dubbed as The Tiantong-01 for mobile telecommunication. It was launched on-board of the Long March-3B carrier rocket from Xichang Satellite Launch Centre.

Q74. Global Peace Index is launched by which of the following?

(a) United Nations Human Rights Council

(b) Institute for Economics and Peace

(c) World Bank

(d) United Nation High Commissioner for Refugees

Explanation :The Global Peace Index (GPI) measures the relative position of nations’ and regions’ peacefulness. It is launched by Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP). IEP develops it in consultation with an international panel of peace experts from peace institutes and think tanks with data collected and collated by the Economist Intelligence Unit.

India is ranked as the 141st country (out of 163 countries) in GPI 2016. Iceland has been ranked as the most peaceful country followed by Denmark and Austria. Syria has been named as the least peaceful preceded by South Sudan, Iraq, and Afghanistan.

Q75. Which among the following are the components of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai Yojana?

  1. Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme
  2. Har Khet Ko Pani
  3. Watershed development
  4. Per drop more crop

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1, 3 and 4 only (B) 1 and 3 only

(C) 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: PradhanMantriKrishiSinchaiYojana (PMKSY) conceived in 2015 is an umbrella scheme for coverage of more and more area under assured irrigation as early as possible. Its major components are:

(i) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme (AIBP) for major and medium irrigation including National projects;

(ii) HarKhetKoPani which includes command area development and water management (CAD&WM) works, surface minor irrigation, irrigation through groundwater and repair, renovation and restoration (RRR) of water bodies;

(iii) Per drop more crop for promotion of micro irrigation ; and

(iv)  Watershed development for rain water harvesting, effective management of the run-off water, prevention of soil erosion, regeneration of natural vegetation and recharging of the ground water table.

Hence, all the statements are correct.

Q76. Consider the following statements with reference to ‘SABLA’ scheme:

  1. It aims at all-round development of adolescent girls of 11-18 years of age.
  2. It is being implemented using the platform of Integrated Child Development Scheme (ICDS) through AanganwadiCentres.
  3. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Statement 1 is correct: The Scheme aims at empowering adolescent girls of 11-18 years by improvement of their nutritional and health status and upgrading various skills like home skills, life skills and vocational skills. Thus the primary aim is health and nutrition of girls.

Statement 2 is correct: The monitoring and supervision mechanism set up under the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme is used for the scheme Sabla as well.

Statement 3 is correct: It is an initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development.

Q77. Which of the following pairs of Departments and Ministries of the Government of India are not correctly matched?

  1. Department of Official Language – Ministry of Culture
  2. Department of Space – Ministry of Science and Technology
  3. Department of Disinvestment – Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  4. Department of Land Resources – Ministry of Agriculture

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 and 4 only

(C) 1, 2 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation:

  • Department of Official Language – Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • Department of Pharmaceuticals – Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
  • Department of Disinvestment – Ministry of Finance.
  • Department of Food and Public Distribution – Ministry of Consumer Welfare, Food and Public Distribution.
  • Department of Space is not under any ministry.
  • Department of Land Resources – Ministry of Rural Development

Q78. Rank of India in ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ by formulated WEF:

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) 82 (B) 87

(C) 84 (D) 89

Explanation: India was ranked low at 87th place globally in terms of gender equality despite a jump of 21 places from last year largely due to progress on the education front while Iceland has topped the chart.

Q79. Consider the following statements regarding the “Zero Defect, Zero Effect (ZED)” scheme:

(i) The scheme is for MSME sector

(ii) It ensures producing high quality manufacturing products

(iii) It ensures minimal negative impact on environment.

(iv) It is a cornerstone of the flagship Make in India programme

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) (i) & (iv) only (B) (ii) & (iii) only

(C) (i), (ii) & (iii) only (D) All of the above

Explanation: Micro Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) sector is crucial for the economic progress of  India and it must match global quality control standards. The Zero Defect, Zero Effect (ZED) scheme was launched in October 2016 to ensure that all the MSMEs are delivering top quality product and using clean technology. This means the public will now onwards be able to use clean technology products and they will also set parameters that are specific to each industry. The main purpose of the scheme is to match the global quality control standards. The ZED scheme is the cornerstone of the Make in India project which aims to turn India into a manufacturing hub and generate jobs and increase incomes and boost the overall economy of the country.

Q80. Railway budget has been merged with the Union budget from FY 2017-18. Which of the following statements were true before the merger?

(i) The budgetary support given by the Central government to the Railways was treated as loan in perpetuity (Capital-at-Charge).

(ii) Ministry of Railway used to remit dividend to the Central government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(A) (i) only (B) (ii) only

(C) Both (i) & (ii) (D) Neither (i) nor (ii)

Explanation: The budgetary support used to be provided (before the merger) to the Railways is basically the Centre’s investment in Railways and treated as loan in perpetuity (and is also called as Capital-at-Charge) with a liability of dividend payment by the Railways to the Centre representing interest on this loan. Capital at charge of Railways currently stands at nearly Rs. 3 lakh crore and annual dividend liability is around Rs. 10,000 crore. With merger of the budget this liability was expected to vanish and Railways would have these resources for investment (and this was one of the biggest arguments made in favour of scrapping the Railway Budget). Hence, with the merger of the Railway budget, the Railways was expected to get some fiscal benefits.

But after the presentation of the budget, the Finance ministry has asked the Railway ministry to still remit the annual dividends it receives from the 14 Central Public Sector Units (CPSUs) under its preview and it has become a bone of contention between the Finance Ministry and the Railway Ministry.

Q81. National Mineral Exploration Policy (NMEP) is stated as the game-changing reform major by the government agencies. Which of the following statements about the objective of NMEP is/are correct?

  1. Competitive bidding of the mineral block through e-auction on revenue sharing model.
  2. The state government will be responsible for identifying mineral blocks for bidding.
  3. Aero-geophysical survey of the country.
  4. Quality research in a public-private partnership.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 2, 3 and 4 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: NMEP is developed by the Mining Ministry and approved by the cabinet. It contains some major policy changes such as –

  • Making public baseline geo-scientific data of world standards
  • Quality research in a public-private partnership
  • Special initiatives for search of deep-seated and concealed deposits,
  • Quick aero-geophysical surveys of the country,
  • Creation of a dedicated geo-science database
  • Establishment of a not-for-profit autonomous institution, National
  • Centre for Mineral Targeting (NCMT), to address the mineral exploration challenges.
  • Reimbursement of the exploration expenditure on the normative cost basis, if no mineral reserves are found.

Q82. NASA has recently launched a Mission “OSIRIS-Rex Mission”. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The aim of this mission is to study an asteroid and return with a sample.
  2. The mission seeks answers to the questions that are central to the human experience: like where did we come from and what is our destiny.
  3. It is a mission to study outer planets of solar system.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only

(C) 3 only (D) None

  1. Explanation:Learning Zone: The Origins, Spectral Interpretation, Resource Identification, Security, Regolith Explorer (OSIRIS-REx) is a NASA asteroid study and sample return mission launched in September 2016.OSIRIS-REx seeks answers to the questions that are central to the human experience: Where did we come from? What is our destiny? Asteroids, the leftover debris from the solar system formation process, can answer these questions and teach us about the history of the sun and planets.

Mission Objectives: Return and analyze a sample of Bennu͛ssurface(Bennu is the name of the asteroid), Map the asteroid, Document the sample site, Measure the orbit deviation caused by non-gravitational forces (the Yarkovsky effect), Compare observations at the asteroid to ground-based observations

Q83. Consider the following items.

  1. Gholwad Chickoo
  2. Uttarakhand Tejpatta
  3. Purandar fig
  4. Sangli raisins

Which of these products has/have Geographical Indicator (GI) tag?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1, 2, and 3 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 only (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation: Learning Zone: Tejpata or Indian bay leaf, has become the first botanical plant from Uttarakhand to receive the Geographical Indications (GI) tag. Figs from Saswad, Purandar, stand out for its size, colour, taste and high iron content. Moreover, it grows on red soil, which adds to the natural benefits. The golden-green Sangli raisins melt in one’s mouth and have fewer wrinkles on the outside, which adds to its taste. GholwadChickoo belongs to the Dahanu-Gholvad belt of Palghar.

Q84. With reference to the Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) mobile application, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is developed by the National Payment Corporation of India.
  2. It has two levels of authentication as compared to the normal net banking which has three levels of authentication.
  3. There is a limit of Rs 5,000 per transaction and Rs 10,000 within 24 hours in BHIM

Select the answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, 3

Explanation: BHIM is a digital payment solution app based on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) from the National Payments. Corporation of India (NPCI), the umbrella organisation for all retail payments systems in India. BHIM also has options to transfer via IFSC and MMID as well for non-UPI banks. It has a facility to store a limited amount of money in a mobile wallet like Paytm or MobiKwik. It has three levels of authentification-one is the device ID and mobile number, then the bank account which you are linking to this app, and the finally the UPI PIN which is needed to complete the transaction There is a limit of 10,000 per transaction and Rs 20,000 within 24 hours in BHIM.

Q85. With reference to the recently launched “SwasthyaRakshaProgramme”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is implemented by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
  2. Its aim is to promote and create health awareness in rural areas by arranging various health camps, SwasthyaRakshan OPDs etc.

Select the answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:The” SwasthyaRakshaProgramme” is launched by the Ministry of AYUSH to promote health and health education awareness in rural areas. SwasthyaRakshan OPDs AndSwasthyaParikshan  Camps are organised on weekly basis in villages. Several mass campaigns have been arranged with a focus on environmental, social and personal hygiene.

Q86. With reference to the “Pratham” satellite, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is operated by the Indian Institute of Technology, Bombay.
  2. Its primary mission is to count electrons in the Earth’s ionosphere.

Select the answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D)Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: Pratham is an Indian ionospheric research microsatellite which will be operated by the Indian Institute of Technology Bombay as part of the Student Satellite Initiative. Its primary mission is to count electrons in the Earth’s ionosphere. It was successfully launched on 26th September 2016 from SatishDhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh along with 7 other satellites on PSLV C-35.

Q87. With reference to the “RESOURCESAT 2A” satellite, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It carries two Solid State Recorders with a capacity of 200 Giga Bits each.
  2. It carries three payloads – a high-resolution Linear Imaging Self Scanner(LISS-4) camera, a medium resolution (LISS-3) camera, a coarse resolution Advanced Wide Field Sensor (AwiFS) camera.

Select the answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation:RESOURCESAT-2A is a Remote Sensing satellite intended forresource monitoring.

RESOURCESAT-2A carries three payloads which are similar to those of RESOURCESAT-1 and RESOURCESAT-2.

They are a high-resolution Linear Imaging Self Scanner (LISS-4) camera operating in three spectral bands in the Visible and Near Infrared Region (VNIR) with 5.8 m spatial resolution and steerable up to ± 26 deg across the track to achieve a five-day revisit capability.

The second payload is the medium resolution LISS-3 camera operating in three spectral bands in VNIR and one in Short Wave Infrared (SWIR) band with 23.5 m spatial resolution.

The third payload is a coarse resolution Advanced Wide Field Sensor (AWiFS) camera operating in three spectral bands in VNIR and one band in SWIR with 56 m spatial resolution.

RESOURCESAT-2A carries two Solid State Recorders with a capacity of 200 Giga Bits each to store the images taken by its cameras which can be read out later to ground stations.

Q88. With reference to the “DeendayalUpadhyay Gram JyotiYojana”, which of the following statements is /are correct?

  1. It is a scheme implemented by the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
  2. “Garv-II” app can be used to ensure transparency in the implementation of rural electrification program.

Select the answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: “DeenDayalUpadhyaya Gram JyotiYojana” is a Government of India scheme designed to provide continuous power supply to rural India. It is implemented by the Ministry of Power. The Ministry of Power has also launched a new app, “GARV-II” to provide real-time data of all six lakh villages of the country. The app is envisaged to ensure transparency in the implementation of rural electrification program.

Q89. Consider the following pairs of the organization and the corresponding union ministry: Organization – Ministry

  1. Geological Survey of India – Ministry of Earth Sciences
  2. Anthropological Survey of India – Ministry of Human Resource Development
  3. Archaeological Survey of India – Ministry of Science and Technology

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2, 3 (D) None of the above

Explanation: Geological Survey of India, Anthropological Survey of India and Archaeological Survey of India are independent organizations of the government of India. Geological Survey of India is a part of the Ministry of Mines. Anthropological Survey of India and Archaeological Survey of India are part of the Ministry of Culture.

Q90. Which of the following statement is not correct about ‘Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code,2016’?

(A) The Code separates commercial aspects of the insolvency proceedings from judicial aspects.

(B) The code is administered by the Ministry of Finance.

(C) The code proposes setting up a regulator to register and regulate the functioning of insolvency professionals.

(D) The Code provides for enabling mechanism on the issue relating to cross-border insolvency.

Explanation: Salient features of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 are,The Code separates commercial aspects of the insolvency proceedings from judicial aspects. While Insolvency Professionals (IPs) will deal with commercial aspects, judicial issues will be handled by proposed Adjudicating Authorities.

The Code provides a fast track insolvency resolution process.

The Code also addresses the important issue relating to cross-border insolvency by providing the enabling mechanism on the subject.

The code proposes setting up a regulator to register and regulate the functioning of insolvency professional agencies, insolvency professionals and information utilities.

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy code was spearheaded by Ministry of Finance. However, the administration of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 has been transferred to the Ministry of Corporate Affairs w.e.f. 29th July 2016.

Q91. The ‘Unstructured Supplementary Service Data (USSD)’ is a new technology that is used to send text between a mobile phone and an application program in the network. Which of the following statements regarding the USSD is/are not correct?

  1. It works only in feature phones but not in smartphones.
  2. It works only in Global System for Mobile communication (GSM) phones.
  3. The USSD is faster than SMS.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) None of the above

Explanation:

The Unstructured Supplementary Service Data (USSD), sometimes referred to as ͞Quick Codes͟ or ͞Feature codes͟, is a protocol used by GSM cellular telephones to communicate with the service provider͛s computers. USSD can be used for WAP browsing, prepaid callback service, mobile money services, location-based content services, menu-based information services, and as part of configuring the phone on the network. USSD messages are up to 182 alphanumeric characters long. Unlike Short Message Service (SMS) messages, USSD messages create a real-time connection during a USSD session. The connection remains open, allowing a two-way exchange of a sequence of data. This makes USSD more responsive than services that use SMS.

Q92. Consider the following pairs: Scheme/Programme: Ministry

  1. Unnat Bharat Abhiyan: Ministry of Human Resource Development
  2. PradhanMantriAdarsh Gram Yojana: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
  3. PradhanMantriSurakshitMatritvaAbhiyan: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matching?

Select the answer using the codes given below.

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) 3 only (D) 1, 2, 3

Explanation: Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is a Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India programme to uplift rural India.Theprogramme is being launched in collaboration with the Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), National Institutes of Technology (NITs) and other leading Government Engineering Institutes like College of Engineering, Pune across the country. PradhanMantriAdarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY) is a rural development programme launched by the Central government’s under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment in the financial year 2009–10 for the development of villages having a higher ratio (over 50%) of people belonging to the scheduled castes through convergence of central and state schemes and allocating financial funding on a per village basis. PradhanMantriSurakshitMatritvaYojana has been launched by PM Modi under the Ministry of Health and family Welfare to provide healthcare facilities to pregnant women.

Q93. With reference to the ‘Blockchain technology’ recently in the news, which of the following are its benefits?

  1. There is no need for a third party/central authority while making transactions.
  2. Since transactions are made by authorized miners, there are no hacking threats.
  3. It records and validates each and every transaction.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2, and 3

Explanation: The Block chain is a new data structure that is secure, cryptography-based and distributed across a network.

Benefits: Records and validates each and every transaction and hence is secure and reliable. Transactions are made by authorized miners and hence there are no hacking threats. No need of a third party/central authority. Decentralization of technology.

Q94. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘RashtriyaGokul mission’:

  1. The mission aims to conserve and develop indigenous bovine breeds.
  2. It has a provision for issuing Animal Health cards.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation: With a view to conserve and develop indigenous bovine breeds, RashtriyaGokul  Mission, a new initiative under National Programme for Bovine Breeding and Dairy Development has been launched for the first time in the country. Animal Health card (͚NakulSwasthyaPatra͛) is provided under PashudhanSanjivani, an animal Wellness Programme.

Q95. Which of the following items are included under the budget head ‘Capital receipts’ of India?

  1. Loans raised by the Government from the public
  2. Interest and dividend on investments made by the Government
  3. Fees and other receipts for services rendered by the Government
  4. Disinvestment receipts
  5. Recoveries of loans from State and Union Territory Governments

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(A) 2 and 3 only (B) 1, 2 and 4 only

(C) 1, 4 and 5 only (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation: The capital receipts are loans raised by the Government from the public (these are termed as market loans), borrowings by the Government from the Reserve Bank of India and other parties through the sale of Treasury Bills, the loans received from foreign Governments and bodies, disinvestment receipts and recoveries of loans from State and Union Territory Governments and other parties. Capital payments consist of capital expenditure on acquisition of assets like land, buildings, machinery, equipment, as also investments in shares, etc., and loans and advances granted by the Central Government to the State and the Union Territory Governments, Government companies, Corporations and other parties.

Q96. According to the Economic Survey, what is relevant to Universal Basic Income?

(A) JAM: Jan Dhan, Aadhar and Mobile (B) Centre-state negotiations for program cost sharing

(C) Both of the above (D)Neither of the above

Explanation: The Economic Survey 2016-17 tabled in Parliament today by the Union Finance Minister ShriArunJaitley has advocated the concept of Universal Basic Income (UBI). This is as an alternative to the various social welfare schemes in an effort to reduce poverty. The survey juxtaposes the benefits and costs of the UBI scheme.

The Survey says the UBI, based on the principles of universality, un-conditionality and agency, is a conceptually appealing idea. Economic Survey points out that the districts where the needs are greatest are precisely the ones where State capacity is the weakest.

This suggests that a more efficient way to help the poor would be to provide them resources directly, through a UBI. Exploring the principles and prerequisites for successful implementation of UBI, the Survey points out that the two prerequisites for a successful UBI are:

  1. functional JAM (Jan Dhan, Aadhar and Mobile) system as it ensures that the cash transfer goes directly into the account of a beneficiary
  2. Centre-State negotiations on cost sharing for the programme. The Survey says that a UBI that reduces poverty to 0.5 percent would cost between 4-5 percent of GDP. This is assuming that those in the top 25 percent income bracket do not participate. On the other hand, the existing middle class subsidies and food, petroleum and fertilizer subsidies cost about 3 percent of GDP.

Q97. Economic survey 2016-2017 has projected the growth of the Indian economy in 2017-18 to what range?

(A) 6.5-7.5 percent (B) 6.25-7.25 percent

(C) 6.2-7.2 percent (D) 6.75-7.25 percent

Explanation: Survey was prepared by CEA in Finance Ministry, ArvindSubramaniam. The survey projects  growth rate of 6.75 to 7.25 percent in the fiscal 2017-2018. This marks the transitional adverse impact of demonetisation on on GDP growth. Highlights of Economic Survey 2016-2017

Growth Forecast:

Gross domestic product (GDP) growth in 2016-17 pegged at 6.5%, down from 7.6% in last fiscal 2015-16.

Economic growth to rebound to 6.75 to 7.5% in 2017-18.

Farm sector to grow at 4.1% in 2016-17, up from 1.2% in 2015-16.Growth rate of industrial sector estimated to moderate to 5.2% in 2016-17 from 7.4% in 2015-16.

Service sector is estimated to grow at 8.9% in 2016-17 GST, other structural reforms should take the growth rate trend to 8-10%.

Demonetisation:

The adverse impact of demonetisation on GDP growth will be transitional. It will affect growth rate by 0.25-0.5%, but to have long-term benefits It may affect supplies of certain agricultural products like sugar, milk, potatoes and onions. Remonetisation will ensure that the cash squeeze is eliminated by April 2017.

Universal Basic Income (UBI):

Advocates the concept of UBI as an alternative to the various social welfare schemes in an effort to reduce poverty.  It will be alternative to plethora of state subsidies for poverty alleviation. UBI would cost between 4 and 5% of GDP

Taxation:

Prescribes cut in individual Income Tax rates, real estate stamp duties. IT net could be widened gradually by encompassing all high income earners. Time table for cutting corporate tax should be accelerated. Tax administration could be improved to reduce discretion and improve accountability.

Goods and Services Tax (GST): Fiscal gains from GST will take time to realise.

Fiscal Deficit: Implementation of muted tax receipts, wage hike to put pressure on fiscal deficit in 2017-18. For fiscal health of the economy fiscal prudence for both centre and states is needed. Fiscal windfall from low oil prices to disappear in 2017-18.

Inflation: The average consumer price index (CPI) inflation rate declined to 4.9% in 2015-16 from 5.9% in 2014-15. CPI-based core inflation remained sticky around 5% in the 2016-17. Oil prices, seen rising by one-sixth in 2017-18 over the previous fiscal 2016-17 prices which could dampen India͛s economic growth.

Monetary Policy:

Monetary easing headroom may be capped due to sharp rise in prices in 2017-18. Market interest rates seen lower in 2017-18 due to demonetisation.  Government Debt to GDP ratio:

It was 68.5% in 2016, down from 69.1% in 2015.

Banking:

Suggests setting up public sector asset rehabilitation agency (PSARA) to take charge of large bad loans in banks. With government backing, PSAR can overcome coordination and political issues on bad loans.

Q98. According to the Economic Survey, what is India’s rank in wind power installations?

(A) 3rd

(B) 4th

(C) 5th

(D) 6th

Explanation:India has attained the fourth position globally in installed wind power capacity.It is after China, US and Germany as a result of various steps in the right direction, the EconomicSurvey said.

With the legal framework in place for the International Solar Alliance (ISA) by Prime MinisterNarendraModi and launched during the UN climate summit in Paris, ISA will be a “major”international body headquartered in India.

It said that currently, India’s renewable energy sector is undergoing transformation with atarget of 175 GW of renewable energy capacity to be reached by 2022.

In order to achieve the target, the major programmes on implementation of:

  • Solar Park,
  • Solar Defence Scheme,
  • Solar scheme for Central Public Sector Undertakings,
  • Solar photovoltaic (SPV) power plants on canal bank and canal tops, solar pump, solar rooftop among others have been launched.

A capacity addition of 14.30 GW of renewable energy has been reported during the last twoand half years under Grid Connected Renewable Power.This includes 5.8 GW from Solar Power,7.04 GW from Wind Power, 0.53 GW from Small Hydro Power and 0.93 GW from Bio-power.On October 31, 2016, India achieved 46.3 GW grid-interactive power capacity, 7.5 GW of gridconnectedpower generation capacity in renewable energy. It also has small hydro powercapacity of 4.3 GW.

Besides this, 92,305 solar pumps were installed and Rs 38,000 crore worth of Green EnergyCorridor is being set up to ensure evacuation of renewable energy. With India’s initiative, ISAenvisaged as a coalition of solar resource-rich countries to address their special energy needs,will provide a platform to collaborate.It will focus on addressing the identified gaps through acommon and agreed approach.

Q99. Consider the following statements regarding PARA (Public Sector Asset Rehabilitation Agency):

  1. It will be charged with working out the largest and most complex cases of stressed assets.
  2. It could solve the coordination problem, since debts would be centralised in one agency.
  3. It would purchase specified loans from banks and then work them out, either by converting debt to equity and selling the stakes in auctions or by granting debt reduction.

Identify the correct statements

(A) 1 & 2 only (B) 2 & 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: To tackle with the problems of increasing Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) of the banking system and declining credit and investment, the Economic Survey 2016-17 on recommended a centralised Public Sector Asset Rehabilitation Agency (PARA). PARA will aim to look at the largest, most difficult cases, and make politically tough decisions to reduce debt. As per the Survey, gross NPAs have climbed to almost 12 per cent of gross advances for public sector banks at end-September 2016. At this level, Indians NPA ratio is higher than any other major emerging market, with the exception of Russia.

The consequent squeeze of banks has led them to slow credit growth to crucial sectors- especially to industry and medium and small scale enterprises (MSMEs)-to levels unseen over the past two decades. As this has occurred, growth in private and overall investment has turned negative.  A decisive resolution is urgently needed before the ͚Twin Balance Sheet͛ problem becomes a  serious drag on growth. Public discussion of the bad loan problem has focused on bank capital. A far more problematic issue is that of finding a way to resolve the bad debts. ͞Some debt repayment problems have been caused by diversion of funds. But the vast majority has been caused by unexpected changes in the economic environment after the Global Financial Crisis. This caused timetables, exchange rates, and growth rate assumptions to go seriously wrong. This concentration creates a challenge since large cases are difficult to resolve, but also an opportunity. The large debtors have many creditors, with different interests. A professionally-run central agency with the government backing could overcome the coordination and political issues that have impeded progress so far.

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